ssa sop om notoc written

1) As per SOPs, what is the configuration and minimum speed for holding?. A) Clean configuration and 100 knots. B) Flaps extended and 150 knots. C) Gear down and 80 knots. D) Clean configuration and 200 knots.

2) During approach, when should the taxi lights be on?. A) When within 15 nm from the landing facility or below 2000', whichever occurs first. B) Only during thunderstorms. C) Always on during daytime. D) When within 5 nm from the landing facility or below 5000'.

3) As per SOPs, the start should be aborted when the ITT;. A) Approaches 900 degrees Celsius and is continuing to rise. B) Drops below 500 degrees Celsius. C) Reaches 1200 degrees Celsius. D) Remains below 700 degrees Celsius for 10 seconds.

4) Before flight, fuel drains should be witnessed by. A) A pilot. B) The PIC. C) The pilot flying. D) The first officer.

5) Whenever passengers are carried the rate of climb must not exceed: A) 800 fpm. B) 1500 fpm. C) 600 fpm. D) 2000 fpm.

6) When leaving the aircraft after the last flight of the day, who is responsible for securing the aircraft?. A) The PIC. B) The ground crew. C) The pilot flying. D) The maintenance team.

7) Speed deviations during a stable approach are within: A) Vref +20 knots, Vref - 5 knots. B) Vref +15 knots, Vref - 10 knots. C) Vref +25 knots, Vref - 5 knots. D) Vref +10 knots, Vref - 15 knots.

8) What fuel must be carried if your flight is scheduled to arrive 25 minutes before sunset (official night)?. A) IFR fuel requirements plus reserves. B) VFR fuel requirements. C) No additional fuel required. D) IFR fuel requirements.

9) When cleared to intercept the LOCALIZER only, while flying an ILS approach using the autopilot, the crew: A) Must select NAV mode only, as APR also arms the GS. B) Can maintain current autopilot settings. C) Must disengage the autopilot immediately. D) Should engage both NAV and APR modes.

10) In an emergency situation with the Quick Position button activated, is it possible to send/receive Bluesky messages or calls?. "A) No, you have to deactivate the Quick Position button by pressing it again before being able to send/receive any messages or make/receive calls via the Bluesky unit". B) Yes, it disables all communication capabilities. C) Only emergency messages can be sent/received. D) Yes, it automatically activates emergency communication.

11) As per SOPs, what is the maximum floor loading for the cargo pod?. A) 50 lbs/sq ft. B) 30 lbs/sq ft. C) 20 lbs/sq ft. D) 40 lbs/sq ft.

12) During downwind in the traffic pattern during a normal visual approach, the SOP states that the altitude should be: A) 500' AAE. B) 1000' AAE. C) 1500' AAE. D) 2000' AAE.

13) For an IFR flight to an airport with no reliable weather report available, the minimum fuel to be carried is?. A) Fuel to destination only. B) Fuel to destination, then alternate, plus 200 lbs reserve. C) Fuel to destination, then alternate, plus 400 lbs reserve. D) Fuel to destination, then alternate.

14) When taxiing on a long, straight taxiway, maximum taxi speed can be?. A) 25 knots. B) 15 knots. C) 30 knots. D) 20 knots.

15) Bank angle should be limited to ___ degrees when passengers are carried (SOP);. A) 35 degrees. B) 45 degrees. C) 30 degrees. D) 60 degrees.

16) What is the job description for a captain?. A) In charge of catering services. B) Responsible for the safe conduct of company flights. C) Responsible for passenger entertainment. D) Responsible for the aircraft's cleanliness.

17) What is the monthly flight time limit?. A) 125 hours. B) 100 hours. C) 150 hours. D) 80 hours.

18) Duty time for flights is defined to: A) Start 30 minutes before the first scheduled departure and ends 10 minutes after the shutdown of the last aircraft engine. B) Start 40 minutes before the first scheduled departure and ends 20 minutes after the shutdown of the last aircraft engine. C) Start 20 minutes before the first scheduled departure and ends 40 minutes after the shutdown of the last aircraft engine. D) Start 1 hour before the first scheduled departure and ends 30 minutes after the shutdown of the last aircraft engine.

19) When your duty time is being extended past the usual 12-hour limit, what will be the minimum rest period required to extend the duty time?. A) Four hours. B) Two hours. C) Six hours. D) Eight hours.

20) What does Minimum En-Route Altitude (MEA) guarantee?. A) Speed control. B) 1000' (2000' in mountainous terrain) terrain clearance + reception of navigational signal at any point along the airway. C) Navigation accuracy. D) Weather visibility.

21) What is the extended weekly flight time limit for an aircraft 12500 lbs or less?. A) 60 hours. B) 45 hours. C) 40 hours. D) 50 hours.

"22) When common carriage (commercial flight) is not involved, company aircraft may be operated under rules in CASR 91, instead of the Company Operating Manual (COM) and CASR 135, for the following flights:". A) Any flights. B) Cargo flights only. C) Ferry or training flights, or transportation of guests when no charge, assessment, or fee is made for the transportation. D) Charter flights only.

23) When can a required flight crew member leave his/her assigned seat?. A) When the cabin crew takes over. B) If the aircraft is flying above 10,000 feet, or in steady cruise flight, with the autopilot engaged. C) Anytime during cruise. D) Only during takeoff and landing.

"24) The Operational flight plan is flight documentation which needs to be filed and retained for 3 Months after the date of the flight, along with the filled out weight & balance form and the passenger manifest.". A) True. B) False. C) Only retained if requested by authorities. D) Retained for 6 months.

25) Are we allowed to operate IFR?. A) Yes, if the aircraft has a minimum of two engines and carrying cargo only. B) No, only VFR operations allowed. C) Yes, but only during VMC conditions. D) Yes, if the aircraft is turbine powered and carrying cargo only.

26) According to the Company Operations Manual, what is the minimum in-flight separation from other aircraft during formation flights?. A) 1 mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically. B) 1 mile horizontally and 2000 feet vertically. C) 1⁄4 mile horizontally and 500 feet vertically. D) 1/2 mile horizontally and 500 feet vertically.

27) According to Company Operations Manual, what is the fuel final reserve requirement for VFR Fixed-wing?. A) 30 minutes. B) 1 hour. C) 45 minutes. D) 60 minutes.

28) According to regulations, a handicapped passenger shall: A) Be seated next to the emergency exit. B) Be seated in the cockpit. C) Not be allowed on the flight. D) Not be seated next to an aircraft door or emergency exit.

30) If a flight was cancelled, the flight plan for that flight has to be properly cancelled or closed within ____ after the flight’s planned ETA or Search and Rescue procedures may be initiated. A) a reasonable amount of time. B) Within 1 hour. C) Within 1⁄4 Hour. D) 1/2 hours.

31) To hear incoming Bluesky calls via the headset: A) Com 1 and 2 must be availabe. B) Com 3 needs to be selected on listening watch. C) Only if Com 1 is available. D) Only if Com 2 is available.

32) As per SOPs, the start should be aborted when the ITT; Approaches ___ degrees Celsius and _____. A) Approaches 500 degrees Celsius and is steady. B) Stays below 800 degrees Celsius. C) Approaches 1000 degrees Celsius and is steady. D) Approaches 900 degrees Celsius and is continuing to rise.

33) Susi Air Caravans can fly into icing conditions if: A) Only if icing conditions does not cover more than 30% of the flight. B) Flying in icing conditions is never allowed in Susi Air caravans. C) Only with prior authorization from the Chief Pilot. D) Only if equipped with deicing equipment.

34) What is the requirement for a stable approach during a circling approach?. A) Wings should be level at or before 200 feet AAE when established on final. B) Wings should be banked at 45 degrees throughout the approach. C) Wings should be level at or before 500 feet AAE when established on final. D) Wings should be level at or before 300 feet AAE when established on final.

35) As per SOPs, when should a missed approach be initiated for a non-precision approach?. A) At MDA. B) At MDA+100ft. C) At MAP. D) At MDA+50ft.

36) When the emergency phraseology "Captain you must listen" is used during flight: A) The captain should continue with the current course of action. B) The captain should request clarification from the ground. C) The captain should inform the crew to prepare for an emergency landing. "D) The captain must discontinue his present course of action and follow the desired course of action, unless the captain determines that doing so would jeopardize the safety of the flight".

37) Holding is to be conducted: A) With flaps 10 configuration at a minimum of 150 knots. B) In clean configurartion at a maximum of 100 knots. C) In clean configuration at a minimum of 150 knots. D) In clean configuration at a minimum of 100 knots.

38) If a missed approach is required while circling to land, you should: "A) Make a climbing turn in the shortest direction towards the runway to intercept the missed approach course corresponding to the opposite instrument approach procedure just flown". B) Maintain present heading and altitude until established on the missed approach procedure. C) Make a climbing turn in the shortest direction away from the runway. "D) Make a climbing turn in the shortest direction towards the runway to intercept the missed approach course corresponding to the instrument approach procedure just flown".

39) What is NOT an element of the stable approach concept?. A) Correct airspeed. B) Correct aircraft configuration. C) Properly set power. D) Fuel boost on.

40) According to the SOP all the requirements for a stable approach must be fulfilled at: A) 500 ft IMC, 100 ft VMC. B) 1000 ft IMC, 300 ft VMC. C) 2000 ft IMC, 500 ft VMC. D) 1500 ft IMC, 400 ft VMC.

42) What is the normal climb prop RPM setting and the VIP climb prop RPM setting?. A) 1800rpm for normal climb and 1850rpm for VIP climb. B) 1850rpm for normal climb and 1800rpm for VIP climb. C) 1750rpm for normal climb and 1850rpm for VIP climb. D) 1850rpm for normal climb and 1750rpm for VIP climb.

44) Final approach checks are;. A) Flaps, propeller, inertial separator bypass, ignition, autopilot, rwy clear, airspeed/gs check. B) Flaps, propeller, inertial separator normal, ignition, autopilot, rwy clear, airspeed/gs check. C) Flaps, propeller, inertial separator normal, fuel boost, autopilot, rwy clear, airspeed/gs check. D) Flaps, propeller, inertial separator bypass, ignition, autopilot, airspeed/gs check.

45) IFR flights can be conducted legally in the caravan when: A) No passengers are carried and the flight is conducted by two pilots with valid instrument ratings. B) The demands of the flight so request. C) No passengers are carried and the flight is conducted by at least one pilot with valid instrument rating. D) Only with prior approval from the Chief Pilot.

46) The DGCA weight and balance determination form is current if issued within the preceding 24 months. A) True. B) False. C) Only if the aircraft has not undergone any modifications. D) Only if the aircraft has flown less than 100 hours since the issuance of the form.

47) Are passengers allowed to carry weapons in their cabin baggage?. A) No, except an authorized person performing a duty on board the aircraft, with prior permission from the pilot-in-command. B) Yes, if they are properly stowed in the cargo pod. C) Only if the weapons are securely locked. D) Only if the weapons are declared to the cabin crew.

48) No person may act as a crewmember: A) Within 8 hours after consuming alcohol, and/or while having 0.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. B) Within 8 hours after consuming alcohol, and/or while having 0.4 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. C) Only if the person has not slept for more than 12 hours. D) Within 10 hours after consuming alcohol, and/or while having 0.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

49) A Captain is defined as;. A) A pilot qualified on an aircraft and responsible for the safe operation of that aircraft. B) A pilot qualified on an aircraft and responsible for the majority of the operation of that aircraft. C) A pilot qualified on an aircraft and co-responsible for the safe operation of that aircraft. D) A pilot qualified on an aircraft and responsible for the safe operation of that aircraft in flight.

60) What is the extended three monthly flight time limit?. A) 250 hours. B) 300 hours. C) 350 hours. D) 375 hours.

61) When can a required flight crewmember leave his/her assigned seat?. A) If the aircraft is flying above 10.000 feet, or in steady cruise flight, with the autopilot engaged. B) Flight crewmembers are not allowed to leave their assigned seat under any circumstances. C) Only if the crewmember has completed all pre-flight checks. D) Only if authorized by the Captain.

62) What is the monthly flight time limit?. A) 80 hours. B) 125 hours. C) 100 hours. D) 110 hours.

63) An infant may be carried in the lap and share a seat with its parents. A) A maximum of 50% of seats may be occupied by an adult passenger and an infant at the same time. B) False. C) Only if the infant is secured in a car seat. D) Only if the infant is less than 6 months old.

64. Regarding Fasting: A) No flight crew member shall perform flight duties if more than 8 hours have passed since the last meal and/or drink has been consumed. B) Crew members can perform their flight duties if they feel well. C) Only if the flight duration exceeds 6 hours. D) Only if the other crew member has not been fastening.

65. What are the standard weights for an adult male passenger?. A) 70kg. B) 73kg. C) 69kg. D) 75kg.

66. What is the basic VFR weather minima’s for take-off and landing?. A) Ceiling 500 feet and Visibility 1 SM. B) Ceiling 1000 feet and Visibility 3 SM. C) Ceiling 2000 feet and Visibility 5 SM. D) Ceiling 1000 feet and Visibility 5 SM.

67. Duty time is the time a flight crew member is available for: A) Flight and other work-related duties in any consecutive 24-hour period. B) Exclusively fly in any consecutive 24-hour period. C) Flight and other work-related duties in any consecutive 24-hour period, including transport to the airport. D) Flight and other work-related duties in any consecutive 12-hour period.

68. What is the maximum duty time for a flight crew member?. A) 8 hours. B) 10 hours. C) 12 hours. D) 9 hours.

69. What are the standard weights for an adult female passenger?. A) 55kg. B) 69kg. C) 65kg. D) 70kg.

70. What does Minimum En-Route Altitude (MEA) guarantee?. A) 1000' (2000' in mountainous terrain) terrain clearance + reception of navigational signal at any point along the airway. B) 1000' terrain clearance + reception of navigational signal only at designated waypoints. C) 2000' terrain clearance + reception of navigational signal at any point along the airway. D) 1000'/2000'. Applicable within 10 nm of the route centerline and end fixes.

71. Can you fly an aircraft with un-serviceable BlueSky equipment?. A) Yes, but special reporting procedures apply. B) False. C) Only during daytime. D) Only if approved by the Chief Pilot.

72. The DGCA weight and balance determination form is current if issued within the preceding 24 months. A) True. B) False. C) Only if the aircraft has not undergone any modifications. D) Only if the form is verified by an inspector.

73. Documents to be carried on board the aircraft? Certificate of airworthiness, Certificate of registration, insurance papers. A) True. B) False. C) Only during international flights. D) Only if requested by air traffic control.

74. What terrain clearance does Route MORA guarantee?. A) 1000'/2000'. Applicable within 10 nm of the route centerline and end fixes. B) 1000'/2000'. Applicable within 22 nm of the route centerline and end fixes. C) 1000'/2000'. Applicable within 25 nm of the route centerline and end fixes. D) 500'/1000'. Applicable within 10 nm of the route centerline and end fixes.

75. No flight crewmember shall engage in scuba diving within ___ hours before any flights. A) 24. B) 72. C) 12. D) 48.

76. An infant is classified as: A) Someone who has not reached his/her second birthday (<2 years). B) Someone who has not reached his/her first birthday (<1 year). C) Someone who is not more than 9 years old. D) C) Someone who is not more than 12 years old.

77. When should the shoulder harness be fastened?. A) During take-off and landing, except if the crewmember cannot perform a required duty with the shoulder harness fastened. B) During take-off and landing, and in severe turbulence. C) During take-off and landing, except if the crewmember does not feel comfortable with it. D) It is not mandatory to fasten the seat belt, but it is highly recommended.

78. Pilot Self-Dispatch is defined as: A) A system where authority and responsibility for flight release, operation, and flight following have been delegated solely by the PIC. B) A system where authority and responsibility for flight release, operation, and flight following have been delegated in equal parts by the PIC and the ground crew. C) A system where authority and responsibility for flight release, operation, and flight following have been delegated solely by the Co-Pilot. D) A system where authority and responsibility for flight release, operation, and flight following have been delegated solely by the Operator.

79. What are the standard passenger’s weights as stated in the latest C.O.M. ?. A) Male 73 kg / Female 69 kg / Child (2-011years) 35 kg / Infant (less than 2 years) 10 kg. B) Male 75 kg / Female 60 kg / Child (2-11 years) 30 kg / Infant (less than 2 years) 10 kg. C) Male 75 kg / Female 69 kg / Child (2-11 years) 30 kg / Infant (less than 2 years) 10 kg. D) Male 75 kg / Female 60 kg / Child (2-11 years) 35 kg / Infant (less than 2 years) 10 kg.

80. Flight duty time is defined as;. "A) The total time elapsed from the time a crewmember is required to report for duty, to the time that crew member has completed all official duties and is released for an official crew rest". B) The total time elapsed from departure to arrival. C) 20 minutes before takeoff until 40 minutes after the aircraft has landed. D) 40 minutes before takeoff until 30 minutes after the aircraft has landed.

"81. Unless actual weights are available, the pilot may use those weights declared by the passengers except if it is apparent to the pilot that the weights are in excess of those declared. What should you do? ". A) Estimate the passengers' weight and add 10% for error margin. B) Use the declared weights without adjustment. C) Refuse to take off until actual weights are obtained. D) Proceed with the flight regardless of weight discrepancies.

82. Maximum duty time, without a break, in a 24-hour period is?. A) 8 hours. B) 12 hours. C) 18 hours. D) 24 hours.

83. What is the 3-monthly flight time limit?. A) 250 hours. B) 300 hours. C) 350 hours. D) 375 hours.

84. What is the extended monthly flight time limit?. A) 100 hours. B) 125 hours. C) 150 hours. D) 175 hours.

85. As per SOPs, the start should be aborted when the ITT. A) Approaches 800 degrees C. B) Approaches 850 degrees C. C) Approaches 900 degrees C and is continuing to rise. D) Exceeds 1000 degrees C.

86. During approach, when should the taxi lights be on?. A) When crossing the final approach fix. B) When entering the downwind leg. C) When within 15 nm from the landing facility or below 2000', whichever occurs first. D) When cleared for the approach.

87. As per SOPs, when should a missed approach be initiated for a non-precision approach?. A) At the decision height. B) At MDA. C) At MDA+50ft. D) When passing the missed approach point.

88. How much of a difference between PF and PM’s ASIs requires aborting the take-off?. A) 5 knots or more. B) 8 knots or more. C) 10 knots or more. D) 15 knots or more.

89. Speed deviations during a stable approach are within: A) Vref + 10 knots, Vref - 5 knots. B) Vref + 15 knots, Vref - 10 knots. C) Vref + 20 knots, Vref - 5 knots. D) Vref + 25 knots, Vref - 10 knots.

90. To hear incoming Bluesky calls via the headset: A) Com 1 needs to be selected on listening watch. B) Com 2 needs to be selected on listening watch. C) Com 3 needs to be selected on listening watch. D) Com 1 and com 2 needs to be selected on listening watch.

91. When taxiing on a long, straight taxiway, maximum taxi speed can be?. A) 20 knots. B) 25 knots. C) 30 knots. D) 35 knots.

92. The SOP suggests that you initiate your circling manoeuvre by: A) Descending 500 feet below MDA. B) Making a 90-degree turn from your approach course. C) Turning left/right 45 degrees from your approach course for 30 seconds before turning downwind. D) Maintaining straight and level flight until established on the downwind leg.

93. For an IFR flight to an airport with no reliable weather report available, the minimum fuel to be carried is?. A) Fuel for destination only. B) Fuel for destination, then alternate, plus 200 lbs reserve. C) Fuel for destination, then alternate, plus 400 lbs reserve. D) Fuel for destination, then alternate, plus 600 lbs reserve.

94. CB activity should be avoided by at least: A) 2 nm. This distance should be increased to 5 nm for any thunderstorm identified as severe. B) 5 nm. This distance should be increased to 10 nm for any thunderstorm identified as severe. C) 8 nm. This distance should be increased to 10 nm for any thunderstorm identified as severe. D) 5 nmThis distance should be increased to 15 nm for any thunderstorm identified as severe.

95. Activating the Quick Position button will reduce position reporting interval to: A) 5 seconds. B) 10 seconds. C) 15 seconds. D) 20 seconds.

96. What fuel must be carried if your flight is scheduled to arrive 25 minutes before sunset (official night)?. A) VFR fuel requirements. B) IFR fuel requirements. C) VFR fuel requirements plus 30 minutes. D) IFR fuel requirements plus 45 minutes.

97. According to the SOP, the climb checks are to be performed: A) Immediately after takeoff. B) Once reaching 1000 feet AGL. C) When the aircraft is clear of terrain and traffic, and the workload has been reduced. Usually above 2000' AGL. D) At the discretion of the pilot.

98. 100 KIAS is the company flap limitation speed for flaps?. A) UP. B) 20. C) 10. D) FULL.

99. When checking the engine oil: A) The cowling is closed immediately after checking the oil. B) The oil cap is checked with the cowling closed. C) The cowling stays open until the other pilot has checked the oil cap. D) The oil level is checked without opening the cowling.

100. As per SOPs, what are the immediate action(s) for the pilot flying should there be an engine failure after take-off airborne with flaps at 20 degrees?. A) Apply full throttle and climb at Vx speed. B) Apply full throttle and maintain current pitch attitude. C) Pitch the nose forward for 85 knots. D) Apply full flaps and initiate a turn towards the nearest suitable landing area.

101. As per SOPs, what is the pilot monitoring’s call when the glide slope initially starts to move off full-scale deflection?. A) "Glide slope steady.". B) "Glideslope deviation.". C) "Glide slope moving.". D) "Glide slope abnormal.".

102. As per SOPs, what is the maximum circling speed for ‘category A’ aircraft?. A) 100 knots. B) 120 knots. C) 90 knots. D) 110 knots.

103. During the procedure turn and initial approach the procedure turn fix should be crossed with: A) Flaps 20, prop fully forward, and below 120 KIAS. B) Flaps 5, prop fully forward, and below 140 KIAS. C) Flaps 10, prop fully forward, and below 130 KIAS. D) Flaps 15, prop fully forward, and below 110 KIAS.

104. Duty time is the time a flight crewmember is available for: A) Flight and other work-related duties in any consecutive 24-hour period. Max duty time is 12 hours. B) Flight only. C) Flight and rest. D) Ground duties only.

105. Defueling shall always be accomplished: A) In closed hangars. B) In open air. C) During refueling. D) Under direct sunlight.

106. What is the daily flight time limit for two crew operations in a fixed-wing aircraft?. A) 8 hours. B) 9 hours. C) 10 hours. D) 12 hours.

107. As first officer, how many hours do you require to operate in Papua?. A) 100 hours. B) 150 hours. C) 200 hours. D) 250 hours.

108. Maximum duty time, without a break, in a 24-hour period is?. A) 10 hours. B) 11 hours. C) 12 hours. D) 13 hours.

109. Until reaching 100 hours PIC on type in the company, a C208 Captain may not be scheduled with a Co-pilot who has less than 100 hours on type?. A) True. B) False. C) Only if approved by the Chief Pilot. D) Only if both pilots have instrument ratings.

110. VOR Equipment Checks shall be carried out on all company aircraft, every 30 days. A) False. B) True. C) Only if both CDIs show clear discrepancies from each other. D) Only if the aircraft is used for IFR flights.

111. When refueling from drums stored on their side, they will have to be turned upright and stand upright for at least ____ before fueling from them?. A) 4 hours. B) 5 hours. C) 6 hours. D) 7 hours.

112. What is the SOP procedure for a TRAFFIC warning, in VMC?. A) All forward lights ON, look for traffic and do not maneuver unless visual. B) Sound the horn and initiate an immediate climb. C) Turn off all non-essential systems and contact ATC. D) Descend below the traffic altitude and maintain separation.

113. If using the GPS as the sole navigation source, what checks MUST be done if flying IMC?. A) Verify cloud base and visibility. B) Ensure the autopilot is engaged at all times. C) Waypoints must be checked against published coordinates and a RAIM check must be completed. The CDI sensitivity must be set to 0.3nm. D) Fly at a higher altitude to avoid potential obstacles.

114. When using TAWS, what does the red color coding refer to with regards to terrain clearance?. A) Terrain is above or within 100ft below the aircraft. B) Terrain is below the aircraft. C) Terrain is at a safe distance from the aircraft. D) Terrain is not a concern.

115. What is normal climb speed?. A) Normal climb airspeed is 110 to 120 knots. B) Normal climb airspeed is 90 to 100 knots. C) Normal climb airspeed is 130 to 140 knots. D) Normal climb airspeed is 80 to 90 knots.

116. What is true regarding taxiing?. A) The First Officer must always taxi. B) Taxi speed should never exceed 10 knots. C) Both pilots must control the aircraft during taxi. D) In tight areas it is recommended the captain taxi.

117. A pilot is on final approach to a runway with crosswind of 24 kts;. A) A landing is allowed but ill-advised. B) A go-around is mandatory. C) The pilot must immediately divert to an alternate airport. D) The pilot must land at an adjacent runway.

118. How many seats may be occupied by an adult and an infant at the same time?. A) 40%. B) 50%. C) 60%. D) 70%.

119. A holder of an Indonesian ATPL or CPL with a type rating on the aircraft to which s/he is assigned shall pass a DGCA medical examination once every?. A) 3 months. B) 6 months. C) 9 months. D) 12 months.

120. Each aircraft shall have on board: A) Only JEPPESEN IFR enroute chart, INDOAVIS VFR charts. B) JEPPESEN VFR charts only. C) INDOAVIS IFR approach plates only. "D) INDONESIAN IFR enroute chart, JEPPESEN IFR approach plates, VFR charts, for airports with no JEPPESEN approach plate coverage, INDOAVIS or DGCA APPROVED COMPANY plates may be used".

121. Flight duty time may be extended beyond the 12 hours, if;. A) One-third of the flight duty time precedes the rest period. B) The pilot requests an extension. C) The aircraft encounters adverse weather conditions. D) The flight is delayed due to technical issues.

122. According to Company Operations Manual what is the fuel final reserve requirement for IFR Fixed wing, if no alternate aerodrome is available?. A) 90 min. B) 100 min. C) 110 min. D) 120 min.

123. According to the Company Operations Manual, what is the requirement for IFR alternate airport minimums?. A) Non-precision approach: Ceiling 800 feet & Visibility 2 SM, Precision approach: Ceiling 600 feet & Visibility 2 SM. B) Non-precision approach: Ceiling 500 feet & Visibility 1 SM, Precision approach: Ceiling 400 feet & Visibility 1 SM. C) Non-precision approach: Ceiling 1000 feet & Visibility 3 SM, Precision approach: Ceiling 800 feet & Visibility 3 SM. D) Non-precision approach: Ceiling 1200 feet & Visibility 4 SM, Precision approach: Ceiling 1000 feet & Visibility 4 SM.

124. In the logboog you have to add: A) 0.1h per leg. B) 0.1h per day. C) 30' per day. D) 5' before chokes off.

125. Rate of descent should be: A) 300 fpm. B) 500 fpm. C) 700 fpm. D) 900 fpm.

126. If using Cat A minimums during circling approach when can you initiate your turn to downwind?. A) When within a 1.68 nm radius from the threshold. B) When within a 2.0 nm radius from the threshold. C) When the tower gives clearance. D) When passing the final approach fix.

127. What is the minimun distance to maintain if smoking from the fuel station. A) 10 ft. B) 50 ft. C) 100 ft. D) 25 ft.