ssa written system

Where is the location of the standby flap motor and standby flap motor up/down switches?. A) Positioned on the center pedestal next to the landing gear lever. B) Both switches are located on the overhead panel between the two pilot seats. C) Found on the aft overhead panel above the co-pilot seat. D) They are situated on the left sidewall near the throttle quadrant.

The exhaust system of the Cessna Grand Caravan consists of a primary exhaust pipe: A) Connected directly to the turbocharger outlet. B) Attached to the right side of the engine just aft of the propeller reduction gearbox. C) Located underneath the cabin floor near the firewall. D) Integrated into the cowling structure for efficient cooling.

The stall warning horn should sound _________ in all configurations. A) 5 to 10 knots below the corresponding stall airspeed. B) At exactly the same speed as the stall airspeed. C) Only during specific flight phases such as approach and landing. D) 15 to 20 knots above the corresponding stall airspeed.

How many landing lights are installed on the Cessna Grand Caravan?. A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4.

State the shaft horsepower of the engine installed in the Legacy and G1000 Caravans. A) 700 hp. B) 720 hp. C) 650 hp. D) 675 hp.

When using the G1000, engine instrumentation and monitoring is displayed: A) On the Left hand side of the PFD during start-up and on the Left hand side of the MFD during normal operation. B) Exclusively on the MFD throughout all phases of flight. C) On the Right hand side of the PFD during start-up and on the Right hand side of the MFD during normal operation. D) On a separate dedicated engine monitoring screen adjacent to the MFD.

How many electrical fuel pumps does the Caravan have?. A) 3. B) 4. C) 1. D) 2.

The ITT gage indicates: A) Gas temperature between the compressor turbine and power turbine. B) Oil temperature within the engine lubrication system. C) Ambient air temperature inside the engine nacelle. D) Exhaust gas temperature after combustion.

The maximum floor loading capacity inside the fuselage of the caravan is: A) 200 lbs per square foot. B) 300 lbs per square foot. C) 250 lbs per square foot. D) 180 lbs per square foot.

What is your action in case of a compressor stall: A) Increase Power and Bleed air- OFF. B) Reduce Power and Bleed air- ON. C) Ignore the stall and continue with normal operations. D) Shut down the engine immediately and perform an emergency landing.

What is the purpose of the chip detectors installed on the PT6A-114A engine?. A) To detect the presence of metal chips in the reduction or accessory gearbox which would indicate excessive engine wear. B) To regulate oil pressure within the engine. C) To monitor fuel flow and prevent fuel contamination. D) To measure engine temperature and prevent overheating.

How many vortex generators are to be counted on each horizontal stabiliser?. A) 18. B) 12. C) 24. D) 10.

What is the purpose of the oil breather drain can?. A) To store excess engine oil for emergency use. B) To regulate cabin pressure and airflow. C) To collect any engine oil discharge coming from the alternator drive pulley, starter/generator, air conditioner and propeller shaft seal. D) To filter out contaminants from the engine oil.

The air conditioning system is: A) Driven by a separate electric motor. B) Operated by a pneumatic system. C) Belt operated by the engine accessory section. D) Powered by hydraulic pressure.

The rotary temperature selector knob, labelled TEMP: A) Controls the cabin lighting temperature. B) Regulates the temperature of the hydraulic fluid. C) Adjusts the engine temperature for optimal performance. D) Modulates the opening and closing action of the flow control valve to control the amount and temperature of air flowing into the cabin.

Use of the fuel tank selectors for a normal flight is when: A) Both fuel tank selectors are turned ON. B) Only the left tank selector is turned ON. C) Only the right tank selector is turned ON. D) Both fuel tank selectors are turned OFF.

If the engine oil pressure falls below 40 PSI during flight at cruise power settings: A) Engine should be restarted immediately. B) Engine should be throttled back to reduce stress on the engine components. C) Engine power should be increased to compensate for the low oil pressure. D) Engine should be shut down or landing made as soon as possible using the minimum power required to sustain flight.

What would be the appropriate speed to fly if either the upper half of the cargo door or passenger door should be open?. A) Less than 150 KIAS. B) Less than 175 KIAS. C) Less at 120 KIAS. D) Less than 100 KIAS.

In a G1000 aircraft, fuel quantity is measured by …. fuel quantity transmitters, …. In each tank. A) 4;2. B) 2; 1. C) 6;3. D) 5; 3.

The PT6A-114A engine incorporates ….. individual chromel-alumel thermocouple probes connected in parallel to measure the ITT. A) 12. B) 6. C) 10. D) 8.

What does the CAS massage ‘VOLTAGE LOW (RED)’ mean?. A) Low fuel warning. B) Indicated electrical system bus voltage is less than 24.5 volts. C) High voltage warning. D) Malfunction in the cabin lighting system.

Where is the oil breather drain can mounted in the C208B?. A) Located inside the cockpit near the throttle quadrant. B) The can is mounted on the right lower engine mount truss, behind the exhaust pipe. C) Attached to the cabin ceiling. D) Positioned on the left wingtip.

When the FUEL CONDITION Lever is in the HIGH IDLE position, fuel supplied results in an idle RPM of ____% NG. A) 65% Ng. B) 52% Ng. C) 60% Ng. D) 80% Ng.

What is the maximum speed the aircraft may be flown with storm window on the captain-side open?. A) 175 KIAS. B) 125 KIAS. C) 200 KIAS. D) 160 KIAS.

Vacuum, for the vacuum system on the Cessna Grand Caravan, is obtained: A) By passing regulated compressor outlet bleed air through a vacuum ejector. B) Through a separate vacuum pump driven by the engine. C) From an electrically driven vacuum generator. D) From the cabin pressurization system.

What does the CAS message ‘GENERATOR AMPS (AMBER)’ mean (aircraft fitted with 200 amp generator)?. A) Indicates a malfunction in the electrical distribution system. B) Indicates that the generator output is less than -10 amps or greater than 200 amps. C) Signals a high voltage condition in the electrical system. D) Alerts to low voltage in the battery system.

When may the EMERGENCY POWER lever be used?. A) When experiencing engine vibration beyond normal limits. B) During normal operations for increased engine performance. C) It should only be used in the event of a fuel control unit malfunction. D) In case of a fire in the engine compartment.

Once the RSVR FUEL LOW (RED) warning light illuminates, there is only adequate fuel in the fuel reservoir for approximately ____minutes of maximum continuous power or approximately ____ minutes at idle power. D) 2 and 7. A) 3 and 9. B) 5 and 15. C) 10 and 20.

A fuel filter bypass flag (red in colour) on top of the fuel filter is: A) An indicator of excessive fuel consumption. B) A signal that the fuel tank is full and no more fuel can be added. C) A warning of low fuel pressure in the system. D) An indication that the filter has become blocked and is in bypass mode, airplane is grounded until further inspection.

The air-conditioning system condenser is located;. A)In the bottom left of the engine compartment. B) On the right wingtip. C) Inside the cabin above the passenger seating area. D) Underneath the cabin floor near the nose landing gear.

Referring to the PT6A-114A engine, all engine driven accessories, with the GENERATOR OFF (AMBER) light on the propeller tachometer: A) Will continue to operate normally. B) Will experience reduced performance. C) Will operate on battery power only. D) Will be disabled to prevent overloading the electrical system.

Generator and the propeller governors, are mounted: A) On the accessory gearbox located at the rear of the engine and driven by a direct drive shaft. B) On the wingtips for optimal aerodynamic balance. C) Inside the cabin near the avionics bay. D) On the landing gear assembly.

Use of the EMERGENCY POWER Lever during normal operation of the power lever: A) Is necessary for routine engine checks. B) Has no impact on engine performance. C) May result in engine surges, or exceeding the ITT, Ng and torque limits. D) Will provide additional power without any adverse effects.

Taking off from an airfield with a high OAT and high altitude, the following parameter will most likely limit engine power: A) ITT. B) Ng. C) Oil pressure. D) Torque.

If a GIA1, 2, PFD or MFD COOLING ADVISORY message is displayed on the G1000: A) Flight can continue with caution. B) Flight is prohibited. C) An emergency landing has to be performed. D) The message can be disregarded.

If asymmetric flap extension is noticed, the pilot must retain roll control and immediately: A) Increase throttle to compensate. B) Initiate a steep climb. C) Retract the flaps. D) Reduce airspeed to minimize effects.

Reverse power operation is limited to: A) One minute. B) Two minutes. C) Three minutes. D) Five minutes.

Where is the redline on the Ng gauge: A) 101.6%. B) 105%. C) 102.6%. D) 100%.

After refueling, how many fuel drain points should be checked below the wings?. A) 2. B) 6. C) 4. D) 8.

The external power receptacle is installed: A) Underneath the fuselage near the nose landing gear. B) On the right wingtip. C) On the left side of the engine compartment near the firewall. D) Inside the cabin near the avionics bay.

Normal operation of the oil pressure is indicated from: A) 85-150 psi. B) 100-120 psi. C) 60-80 psi. D) 85-105 psi.

Where are the two chip detectors installed on the PT6A-114A engine?. A) In the power turbine and the compressor turbine. B) In the accesrory gearbox and the propeller gobernor. C) Inside the compressor and the power turbine. D) One on the underside of the reduction gearbox and one on the underside of the accessory gearbox.

Electric trim is only available for the: A) Rudder. B) Ailerons. C) Elevator. D) Flaps.

When inadvertently flying into severe icing conditions: A) Disengage the autopilot and hand fly the aircraft routing away from the severe icing condition and avoiding abrupt and excessive maneuvering. B) Descend to a lower altitude to escape the icing conditions. C) Increase speed to exit the icing conditions quickly. D) Engage the autopilot to maintain stability.

In the event of an audio panel failure: A) A fail-safe circuit connects the pilot’s headset directly to the COM 1 radio. B) The aircraft must be diverted to the nearest airport immediately. C) Communication with air traffic control is lost. D) The aircraft is grounded until the audio panel is repaired.

If the rudder gust lock is not disengaged before operating the aircraft: A) A failsafe connection to the elevator will release it during rotation, ground steering is not possible. B) The aircraft will experience severe vibrations during flight. C) The autopilot will automatically engage. D) The aircraft will be unable to taxi.

Under normal conditions, the Propeller Governor acts as a constant speed unit: A) Maintaining propeller RPM selected by the pilot. B) Automatically adjusting engine power. C) Controlling fuel flow to the engine. D) Adjusting propeller pitch based on airspeed.

EMERG PWR LVR CAS message (G1000) indicates: A) Generator failure. B) That the emergency power lever is out of the NORMAL position before engine start. C) Low engine oil pressure. D) A malfunction in the engine power system.

The elevator has: A) One trim tabs. B) No trim tabs. C) Three trim tabs. D) Two trim tabs.

What is the time limitation for the transient propeller speed of 2090 RPM?. A) 5 minutes. B) It is not time limited. C) 10 minutes. D) 2 minutes.

When may BETA mode be used?. A) During emergency situations. B) During takeoff and landing. C) During cruise flight. D) During ground operations only.

How many aileron servo tabs does the Caravan have?. A) Three. B) Two. C) Five. D) Four.

Loss of any pneumatic signal to the fuel control unit causes: A) The engine to shut down immediately. B) The engine to surge in power. C) The engine to drop to approx 48% Ng. D) The engine to maintain current power output.

When the FUEL CONDITION Lever is in the LOW IDLE position, fuel supplied results in an idle RPM of ____% Ng. A) 52% Ng. B) 70% Ng. C) 45% Ng. D) 65% Ng.

With the generator supplying the electrical load and the STBY ALT PWR switch in the ON position: A) The STBY PWR ON CAS message and the STBY PWR INOP CAS message should both be extinguished. B) The generator will overload and shut down. C) The electrical system will switch to battery power automatically. D) The STBY PWR ON CAS message will remain illuminated.

What is the total oil capacity in quarts?. A) 9.5. B) 12. C) 10. D) 14.

The primary governor: A) Is also connected to the beta valve, and in case of a power turbine over speed, limits fuel to the engine. B) Controls cabin pressure. C) Regulates fuel flow to the engine. D) Manages electrical power distribution.

Flight load factor limits for the Cessna Grand Caravan WITHOUT payload extender kit are: A) +3.0g and -1.5g. B) +4.0g and -2.0g. C) +2.5g and -1.0g. D) +3.8g and -1.52g.

The fuel pump drain reservoir should be drained: A) Once a week. B) Once a day or at an interval not to exceed six engine shutdowns. C) After every flight. D) At the end of the last flight of the day.

Cabin ventilation air enters the aircraft through: A) The exhaust system. B) The cockpit windows. C) The cargo doors. D) Air inlets on each wing at the upper ends of the wing struts.

Vacuum is generated by: A) Venting P3 air through an ejector. B) A separate vacuum pump. C) Venting P2.5 air through an ejector. D) A hydraulic system.

Why must the propeller not be left to windmill while the engine is NOT running?. A) There is no lubricating oil supplied with only the power turbine section spinning. B) It can cause excessive wear on the propeller blades. C) It can damage the engine starter. D) It can lead to engine overspeed.

When starting the engine using the airplane battery: A) The starter shall not be engaged for more than 60 seconds continuously. B) The starter shall not be engaged for more than 30 seconds, followed by a starter rest period of 60 seconds. C) The starter shall not be engaged for more than 15 seconds, followed by a starter rest period of 30 seconds. D) The starter shall not be engaged for more than 45 seconds continuously.

The fuel control unit: A) Controls the amount of fuel delivered to the engine in accordance with power lever management. B) Regulates cabin temperature. C) Manages electrical power distribution. D) Controls the flow of hydraulic fluid.

Selecting the STARTER switch to the START position: A) Energizes the starter-generator and also the ignition system when the IGNITION switch is selected to NORM. B) Activates the autopilot system. C) Initiates the fuel flow to the engine. D) Turns off all electrical systems.

The yaw damper, if installed, must be turned off: A) During approach and landing. B) During cruise flight. C) During engine start-up. D) During take-off and landing.

"The standby electrical system serves as a power source in the event the main generator system malfunctions. The system includes:". B) An alternator operated at 75 amp capacity rating. C) A solar panel array. D) Emergency power outlets in the cabin.

If you accidentally turn on the STARTER switch in the cruise: A) The navigation lights will turn off. B) The generator will go on-line. C) Engine power will increase. D) The generator will go off-line.

The Cessna Caravan's turbine engine is rated at: A) 675 HP. B) 600 HP. C) 700 HP. D) 650 HP.

The rudder has: A) One trim tab. B) No trim tab. C) Two trim tabs. D) Three trim tabs.

The inertial separator has to be used when: A) In visible moisture and OAT is below 5 Celsius. B) In clear air. C) During takeoff. D) During descent.

What does ITT stand for?. A) Indicated Turbine Temperature. B) Internal Turbine Temperature. C) Inlet Turbine Temperature. D) Interstage Turbine Temperature.

What is the maximum operating altitude of the Cessna Grand Caravan?. A) 23,700 feet. B) 20,000 feet. C) 25,000 feet. D) 22,800 feet.

An inertial separator system in the engine air inlet duct: A) Prevents moisture and other particles from entering the compressor air inlet plenum when in bypass mode. B) Increases engine performance. C) Filters the air before it enters the engine. D) Regulates engine temperature.

What does the lower limit of the white band on the airspeed indicator signify?. A) Stall speed in the landing configuration at maximum all-up weight. B) Stall speed in the cruise configuration at maximum all-up wight. C) Flap operating speed. D) Minimum takeoff speed.

What does the CAS message “SPD NOT AVAIL (WHITE)” mean?. A) It indicates that the SPD key was pressed on autopilot mode control panel (nothing happened, it is not installed). B) Speed control is not available due to a system malfunction. C) The aircraft is not capable of achieving the desired speed. D) Stall speed is not available for this aircraft.

The left pitot-static system supplies ram air pressure to: A) Air Data Computer #1 and to the standby airspeed indicator. B) Air Data Computer #2 and to the primary airspeed indicator. C) The altimeter and vertical speed indicator. D) The autopilot and flight director system.

What is the Maximum Manoeuvring Speed at maximum all-up weight without payload extender kit?. A) 143 KTAS. B) 148 KTAS. C) 95 KTAS. D) 175 KTAS.

To keep ITT from exceeding maximum idle limitations during ground operations: A) Advance FUEL CONDITION LEVER to increase Ng. B) Retard FUEL CONDITION LEVER to decrease Ng. C) Engage the starter motor. D) Activate the bleed air system.

What is the negative load factor limit with flaps up on C208B fitted with the payload extender system?. A) -2.0g. B) -1.34g. C) -1.0g. D) -2.5g.

What is NOT true about the RAIM check?. A) RAIM prediction can be done on a computer without having a GPS reciver. B) RAIM check verifies the integrity of GPS signals. C) RAIM check is required for RNAV approaches. D) RAIM check must be done on both GPS1 and GPS2 receiver.

What is the function of the fuel reservoir?. A) Maintains a head of fuel around the ejector and boost pump to prevent pump cavitation when flying uncoordinated. B) Stores reserve fuel for emergency use. C) Filters contaminants from the fuel system. D) Measures fuel consumption.

When taxiing with the rudder gust lock in place: A) You cannot move your rudder pedals. B) Rudder pedals become more sensitive. C) Rudder control is enhanced. D) The aircraft turns sharper.

What are the parameters for the lateral deviation of the CDI sensitivity during the Enroute, Terminal, and Approach segments?. A) 2 nm/1 nm/0.3 nm. B) 1 nm/2 nm/0.3 nm. C) 0.3 nm/1 nm/2 nm. D) 1 nm/0.3 nm/2 nm.

When the "Quick position" button is used on the Blue Sky system, the system allows us to: A) do nothing else. "Quick position" must be turned off before the Blue Sky system can be used to send or receive messages. B) Instantly send messages to all aircraft in the vicinity. C) Activate the autopilot system. D) Access weather information only.

With the rudder gust lock in place: A) You cannot taxi or tow the aircraft. B) Taxiing becomes easier. C) The aircraft turns sharper. D) Rudder pedals become more sensitive.

Avgas may be used for the Caravan: A) No, it is prohibited. B) Yes, but with certain procedures to be followed. C) Only with approval from the manufacturer. D) Only if no other fuel is available.

"The starter-generator functions as a motor for engine starting and will motor the gas generator section until a speed of ….. % Ng is reached, at which time the start cycle will automatically be terminated.". A) 48%. B) 46%. C) 55%. D) 52%.

Maximum glide at 5000lbs with cargo pod is achieved at a speed of: A) 79 KIAS. B) 95 KIAS. C) 71 KIAS. D) 87 KIAS.

Having a dual GPS failure within 30nm of destination airport will: A) Remove all indications of position and the moving map will be centered at the last known position. B) Trigger an emergency landing procedure. C) Activate the autopilot. D) Initiate a divert to the nearest suitable airport.

The start procedure should be aborted if: A) All of the options are correct. B) Engine temperature exceeds limits. C) Starter fails to engage. D) Low oil pressure is indicated.

When checking the stall warning device fitted to the aircraft, always check: A) Freedom of movement of the stall warning vane and audible warning tone. B) Fuel levels in the tanks. C) Tire pressure. D) Oxygen levels in the cabin.

The autopilot can be disconnected without removing yaw damper by doing the following: A) Pushing the left Manual Electric Pitch Trim button OR One press of the AP button on the Autopilot Mode Control Panel. B) Pulling the emergency autopilot disconnect knob. C) Disengaging the yaw damper switch. D) Turning off the electrical power.

What are the minimum bus voltages to attempt a battery start and a GPU start?. A) 24 volts for a battery start and 20 volts for a GPU start. B) 28 volts for a battery start and 24 volts for a GPU start. C) 22 volts for a battery start and 18 volts for a GPU start. D) 30 volts for a battery start and 26 volts for a GPU start.

Interstage Turbine Temperature (ITT) is temperature measured: A) Between the compressor and power turbines. B) Between the compressor and the combustion chamber. C) At the exhaust. D) At the inlet of the engine.

What does the CAS message ‘LEFT FUEL LOW (AMBER)’ mean?. A) Indicates that fuel quantity in the left tank is 170 lbs or less. B) There is a malfunction in the left fuel tank sensor. C) Left fuel tank is empty. D) Left fuel pump failure.

When using the G1000, engine instrumentation and monitoring is displayed: A) On the Left hand side of the PFD during start-up and on the Left hand side of the MFD during normal operation. B) On the Right hand side of the PFD during start-up and on the Right hand side of the MFD during normal operation. C) On the center display only. D) On the PFD during start-up and on the MFD during normal operation.

Fuel tank selector valves should ___________ during pre-flight inspection. A) Both be set to the ON position. B) Both be set to the OFF position. C) One be set to the ON position and the other to the OFF position. D) Be left in their current position.

Select the correct statement below: A) None of the airplane seats are approved for installation facing aft, except the VIP seats. B) All airplane seats are approved for installation facing aft. C) Only the rear seats are approved for installation facing aft. D) All airplane seats are approved for installation facing aft, including the pilot seats.

What is the maximum TAS cruise speed, for the C208B passenger version, at 10,000ft?. A) 175 KTAS. B) 184 KTAS. C) 200 KTAS. D) 160 KTAS.

Fuel is heated before entering the FCU by: A) Fuel additives. B) Exhaust heat. C) Electric heaters. D) Engine oil, through a heat exchanger.

If the engine-driven fuel pump fails: A) The electric fuel pump will take over immediately. B) Your Caravan will shortly become a glider. C) The engine will automatically shut down. D) The auxiliary pump will automatically activate.

When operating the standby wing flap system, the wing flap movement: A) Should be done only when the aircraft is on the ground. B) Should be terminated BEFORE the flaps reach full up or down travel. C) Should continue until the flaps reach full up or down travel. D) Should be controlled by the autopilot system.

What is the minimum aircraft battery voltage required for an engine start using the GPU?. A) 24 V. B) 30 V. C) 28 V. D) 20 V.

The terrain warning system as installed in the caravan is based on: A) Radar. B) Infrared sensors. C) GPS database. D) Sonar.

What is the oil capacity of the Caravan?. A) 12 U.S. quarts tank capacity, 18 U.S. quarts total system capacity. B) 9.5 U.S. quarts tank capacity, 14 U.S. quarts total system capacity. C) 5 U.S. quarts tank capacity, 10 U.S. quarts total system capacity. D) 15 U.S. quarts tank capacity, 20 U.S. quarts total system capacity.

What does the CAS message ‘GENERATOR OFF (AMBER)’ mean?. A) The generator is functioning properly. B) Indicates that the generator is not connected to the aircraft bus. C) The generator is overloaded. D) Indicates a problem with the voltage regulator.

In the event of a fire warning, what circuit breaker needs to be pulled to silence the warning?. A) Row 5 no. 2 in a G1000, row 4 no. 6 in a Legacy. B) Row 4 no. 7 in a G1000, row 3 no. 2 in a Legacy. C) Row 2 no. 4 in a G1000, row 5 no. 3 in a Legacy. D) Row 3 no. 7 in a G1000, row 2 no. 5 in a Legacy.

When illuminated red, the voltage high CAS message indicates: A) Generator malfunction. B) Bus voltage is less than 20 volts. C) Bus voltage is greater than 32 volts. D) Normal operating voltage.

The air inlets located on each wing at the upper end of the wing struts: A) Aid in reducing drag during flight. B) Is used to let ventilating air into the cabin. C) Provide cooling air to the engine. D) Are for refueling purposes only.

If PFD1 fails, the following will occur: A) MFD will go blank, PFD2 will continue to operate normally. NAV 1 and COM 1 will not be available. B) Both PFDs will go blank, and the MFD will display engine instruments only. NAV 1 and COM 1 will be available. C) MFD will go reversionary mode, PFD2 will go reversionary mode but not displaying any engine instruments. NAV 1 and COM 1 will not be available. D) Both PFDs will go reversionary mode, displaying basic flight instruments only. NAV 1 and COM 1 will be available.

After engine start, with the condition lever set in the Low Idle position, the Ng should be at: A) 55%. B) 52%. C) 48%. D) 65%.

What indications are available to the pilot that a loss of vacuum has occurred in the aircraft vacuum system (C208B G1000 type aircraft)?. A) The attitude indicator shows incorrect readings. B) A white VACUUM LOW CAS message. C) An orange warning flag appears on the standby attitude indicator. D) The airspeed indicator stops functioning.

On a G1000 aircraft, the vacuum system provides suction necessary to operate: A) The standby attitude indicator only. B) All primary flight instruments. C) The airspeed indicator only. D) The altitude indicator only.

A CDI selected to GPS is denoted by ____ coloring, and a CDI selected to a VOR frequency is denoted by ____ coloring. A) Green, Blue. B) Magenta, Green. C) Red, Yellow. D) Blue, Red*.

As per POH, the auxiliary boost pump shall be placed in the ON position during the following times: A) During descent only. B) All operations using aviation gasoline only. C) Engine starting only. D) Engine starting, any time the auxiliary boost pump cycles on and off, and all operations using aviation gasoline.

With the STARTER switch positioned to MOTOR: A) The starter engages. B) The fuel pump is turned off. C) The ignition circuit is not energized. D) The generator is activated.

With the EXTERNAL POWER switch in BUS position: A) The external power is disconnected. B) The external power is supplied to all electrical systems. C) The external power is supplied to the starter only. D) The external power is supplied to the distribution bus, no external power is supplied to the starter.

The compressor stage of the PT6A-114A engine fitted to the C208B consists of: A) Five axial stages combined with a single centrifugal stage, assembled as an integral unit. B) Two axial stages combined with a single centrifugal stage, assembled as an integral unit. C) Four axial stages combined with a single centrifugal stage, assembled as an integral unit. D) Three axial stages combined with a single centrifugal stage, assembled as an integral unit.

What is the maximum speed the aircraft may be flown with the storm window on the captain-side open?. A) 125 KIAS. B) 110 KIAS. C) 135 KIAS. D) 175 KIAS.

With the propeller in feather (on the ground), what precaution must be made to avoid damaging the propeller linkage?. A) The throttle must be set to maximum power. B) The propeller must be manually rotated. C) The power lever must not be moved aft of the IDLE position. D) The propeller feathering switch must be turned off.

Fuel System Malfunction immediate action is: A) Fuel Tank Selector both ON. B) Fuel Dump switch ON. C) Fuel Boost switch ON. D) Fuel Heater switch ON.

State the maximum ramp weight of C208 WITHOUT payload extender kit. A) 9062 lbs. B) 8785 lbs. C) 8750 lbs. D) 9097 lbs.

Which of the following options is NOT part of the payload extender kit?. A) Larger more robust tires. B) Stall fences mounted mid span leading edge of each wing. C) Strengthen main landing gear axel. D) Reinforced structural rigidity of the nose wheel increasing the maximum towing weight.

The gas generator turbine rotor shaft: A) Is connected to the propeller. B) Drives the hydraulic pump. C) Powers the electrical system. D) Extends aft to drive the compressor and the accessory gearbox.

How many taxi/recognition lights are installed on the Cessna Grand Caravan?. A) 3. B) 4. C) 1. D) 2.

If all electrical power fails in flight, the wing flaps: A) Can still be operated manually. B) Will retract automatically. C) Will remain in their current position. D) Will extend automatically.

The combustion section includes: A) 3 igniter plugs and 12 equally spaced fuel nozzles. B) 2 igniter plugs and 14 equally spaced fuel nozzles. C) 4 igniter plugs and 10 equally spaced fuel nozzles. D) 1 igniter plug and 16 equally spaced fuel nozzles.

A propeller overspeed governor check shall be performed: A) Only during annual inspections. B) Every 10 hours of flight time. C) Before the first flight of the day. D) After every flight.

What is total usable fuel with full tanks?. A) 2444.4 Lbs. B) 335.6 USG. C) 332 USG. D) 2248.5 Lbs.

Maximum speed of the gas generator section of the PT6A-114A engine is 38 500 rpm at ____ % Ng. A) 105%. B) 101.6%. C) 102.6%. D) 110%.

To avoid damage to the cargo pod the power lever should not be left in beta range for more than ____ when parked: A) 10 minutes. B) 1 minute. C) 5 seconds. D) 30 seconds.

With the AVIONIC BUS TIE SWITCH in the ON position: A) The No. 1 avionic bus is tied to the main bus. B) The No. 1 avionic bus is tied to the battery bus. C) The No. 1 avionic bus is tied to the No. 2 avionic bus. D) The No. 2 avionic bus is tied to the battery bus.

When illuminated red, the voltage low CAS message indicates: A) Normal operating voltage. B) Bus voltage is less than 24.5 volts. C) Generator malfunction. D) Bus voltage is greater than 32 volts.

A portable fire extinguisher is located: A) In the cockpit overhead panel. B) Underneath the pilot’s seat. C) On the inside of the pilot’s entry door. D) In the cargo compartment.

The rudder trim is accomplished through: A) A trim tab on the rudder. B) Nose wheel steering bungee connected to the rudder control wheel. C) The autopilot system. D) A hydraulic system.

The planetary gear: A) Connects the engine to the propeller. B) Reduces the high rpm/ low torque of the power turbine to the low rpm/ high torque required by the propeller. C) Controls the propeller pitch. D) Connects the engine to the electrical system.

Selecting the STARTER switch to the START position: A) Deactivates the starter-generator. B) Activates the fuel pump. C) Energizes the starter-generator and also the ignition system when the IGNITION switch is selected to NORM. D) Starts the engine immediately.

When adding / topping-up the engine oil: A) It is not necessary to check the oil level afterward. B) The oil filter must be changed first. C) Only the same type and brand of oil that is currently being used may be added. D) Any type of engine oil may be used.

There is an amber LED above the STBY ALT POWER switch that illuminates: A) When the BATTERY switch is in the OFF position with STBY ALT POWER in the ON position. B) When the BATTERY switch is in the ON position. C) When the STBY ALT POWER switch is in the OFF position. D) When the avionics master switch is on.

In case of an engine failure in the cruise, the memory items are: A) 85 kts, power idle, prop feather, condition cut off. B) 120 kts, power idle, prop feather, condition cut off. C) 80 kts, power idle, prop feather, condition cut off. D) 95 kts, power idle, prop feather, condition cut off.

The Propeller Tachometer-Generator produces an electric signal which is used: A) To indicate propeller RPM. B) To indicate engine RPM. C) To indicate oil pressure. D) To indicate fuel flow.

The PT6A-114A engine is fitted with: A) 10 primary and 4 secondary fuel nozzles. B) 6 primary and 3 secondary fuel nozzles. C) 12 primary and 6 secondary fuel nozzles. D) 8 primary and 2 secondary fuel nozzles.

When noticing fuel imbalance of 200 lbs, the pilot should: A) Report it to ATC and continue the flight. B) Immediately close the fuel selector on the highest tank's side. C) Attempt to balance it by using fuel transfer pumps. D) Immediately close the fuel selector on the lowest tank's side.

What is the TOTAL fuel capacity of the C208?. A) 2224.4 Lbs. B) 332 USG. C) 2258 Lbs. D) 335.6 USG.

"The mixing air push-pull control (cabin air heating system) should always be in the FLT position (pushed in) when the airplane is in flight. If it is left in GRD (ground) position then...". A) The system may cause excessive fuel consumption. B) The system may fail to provide heat to the cabin. C) The system may become stuck in that position. D) The system may overheat and cause an automatic shutdown.

A negative display on battery amps (BAT AMPS on the EIS-ENGINE display page) indicates that: A) The battery is discharging. B) The battery is fully charged. C) The battery is not connected. D) The battery is charging.

State the maximum ramp weight of C208 WITHOUT payload extender kit. A) 9097 lbs. B) 9000 lbs. C) 8750 lbs. D) 8785 lbs.

A trimmable servo tab is located on: A) The rudder. B) The left aileron. C) The elevator. D) The right aileron.

When the pilot is using the Engine Power Lever (EPL) during flight, he/she should now maintain a minimum of: A) 50% Ng. B) 1900 RPM. C) 65% Ng. D) 80% Ng.

"When steering using rudder pedals only the nose wheel will turn through an arc of approximately _____ degrees and when brakes are used to turn the nose when will turn through an arc of approximately _____ degrees (G1000 type aircraft)?". A) 20 and 60. B) 25 and 70. C) 10 and 45. D) 15 and 51.5.

Where is the oil breather drain can mounted in the C208B?. A) The can is mounted on the left lower engine mount truss, behind the exhaust pipe. B) The can is mounted on the nose landing gear. C) The can is mounted on the right lower engine mount truss, behind the exhaust pipe. D) The can is mounted on the firewall.

According to the Pilot Operating Handbook, the maximum torque allowable during climb at 1900 RPM is: A) 2000 lbs. B) 1750 lbs. C) 1500 lbs. D) 1865 lbs.

What is the maximum loading weight within the cargo pod?. A) 1000 lbs. B) 1200 lbs. C) 1300 lbs. D) 1090 lbs.

"If any of the cockpit doors should inadvertently open in flight, the airspeed should be slowed to ______ KIAS or less to reduce buffeting of the doors.". A) 150. B) 125. C) 175. D) 100.

The Go Around button on the power lever will activate: A) The autopilot to engage approach mode. B) The engine ignition system. C) The autothrottle to increase thrust. D) The flight director to a pre-set position.

If the starter motor does not disengage after start, the pilot should: A) Battery off, fuel cut off, APU off. B) Fuel cut off, APU on, battery off. C) Fuel cut off, APU off, battery on. D) Battery off, APU off, fuel cut off.

When taxiing with the rudder gust lock in place: A) You should use the tiller for steering. B) You should apply full rudder deflection. C) You cannot move your rudder pedals. D) You should use differential braking for steering.

When the External Power Switch is in the BUS position: A) No external power is applied to the aircraft. B) External power is applied to both the main bus and the starter. C) External power is applied to the starter and no power is available to the main bus. D) External power is applied to the main bus and no external power is available to the starter.

Accessory items of the engine (oil pump, fuel pump, and Ng tacho-generator) are driven by the: A) Battery. B) Power turbine. C) Gas generator turbine. D) Alternator.

What do the wing flap trailing edge angle and leading edge vortex generators do?. A) Decrease stall speed and decrease lateral stability. B) Increase stall speed and decrease lateral stability. C) Increase stall speed and enhance lateral stability. D) Decrease stall speed and enhance lateral stability.

When the engine has started: A) The starter switch automatically moves to the OFF position. B) The ignition system remains energized until the aircraft is shut down. C) The generator system is activated automatically. D) The starter switch must be manually placed in the OFF position to de-energise the ignition system and activate the generator system.

Spoiler travel is: A) Proportional to rudder deflection. B) Independent of aileron travel. C) Controlled by the autopilot. D) Proportional to aileron travel if more than 5 degrees up.

When illuminated amber, the alternator amps CAS message indicates: A) Alternator output is within normal operating range. B) Alternator output is less than 0 amps. C) Alternator output is less than -10 amps and greater than 75 amps. D) Alternator output is greater than 200 amps.

What is the maximum full rudder sideslip duration?. A) 1 minute. B) 5 minutes. C) 3 minutes. D) 2 minutes.

The brake fluid reservoir is situated: A) In the cockpit, near the pilot's feet. B) In the nose compartment on the left side, forward of the firewall. C) Underneath the pilot's seat. D) In the baggage compartment.

The autopilot can be disconnected by: A) Pushing the autopilot disconnect button on the control wheel. B) All the options are correct. C) Pushing the autopilot disconnect button on the autopilot panel. D) Applying manual force to the control wheel.

The electric standby fuel pump is intended for use during: A) Emergency situations. B) Normal operations. C) All of the options are correct. D) Engine start-up.

What type of ailerons does the caravan have?. A) Conventional ailerons. B) Differential ailerons. C) Flaperons. D) Frise ailerons.

When illuminated amber, the generator amps CAS message indicates: A) Generator output is within normal operating range. B) Generator output is less than 0 amps. C) Generator output is less than -10 amps or greater than 200amps. D) Generator output is greater than 75 amps.

How do you calculate useful load?. A) Ramp weight minus basic empty weight. B) Take off weight minus basic empty weight. C) Landing weight minus trip fuel. D) Take off mass minus zero fuel mass.

"Fuel is injected into the combustion chamber liner of the PT6A-114A engine by _____ simplex nozzles supplied by a dual manifold.". A) 10. B) 14. C) 6. D) 8.

The standby flap system is operated: A) Manually by the pilot. B) Automatically during takeoff and landing. C) Until the flap position indicator reaches the desired setting. D) By the autopilot system.

What is the meaning of BETA Mode relating to the control of propeller blade pitch?. A) Propeller blade pitch is controlled manually by the pilot. B) Propeller blade pitch is controlled by the autopilot. C) Propeller blade pitch is controlled by the condition lever. D) Propeller blade pitch is controlled by the power lever.

The PT6A-114A engine incorporates _____ individual chromel-alumel thermocouple probes connected in parallel to measure the ITT. A) 14. B) 10. C) 6. D) 8.

Oil pressure warning indications of red lines and flashing digits will be seen on the Engine Instrumentation System (EIS) when oil pressure is less than ____ psi or greater than ____ psi. A) 85; 105. B) 30; 90. C) 50; 120. D) 40; 105.

The weather radar can be used to get a basic picture of the terrain ahead: A) No, it only detects weather patterns. B) No, it is not designed for terrain mapping. C) Yes, it provides detailed terrain mapping. D) Yes, but we do not use it to see terrain.

With regards to the passenger entry door, select the correct statement below: "A) Do not use the outside key lock to lock the door prior to flight as the door could not be opened from the inside if it were needed as an emergency exit". B) Always lock the door with the outside key lock to prevent unauthorized entry. C) Use the emergency exit handles to lock the door before takeoff. D) Lock the door from the inside to prevent unauthorized access.

A two-position toggle switch, labelled BLEED AIR HEAT, controls: A) The operation of the bleed air control valve allowing hot bleed air to flow to the cabin heating system. B) The activation of the engine anti-ice system. C) The operation of the cabin pressurization system. D) The flow of fresh air into the cabin.

Name two ways for the pilot to control the FCU. A) Power lever and fuel condition lever. B) Throttle lever and mixture control. C) Rudder pedals and elevator trim wheel. D) Aileron and elevator control column.

Rudder trimming is accomplished by: A) The rudder pedal adjustment knob. B) The aileron trim tab. C) The elevator trim tab. D) The nose wheel steering bungee connected to the rudder control system.

To get the most accurate reading of oil level, the oil level should be checked: A) As soon as possible after engine stop, not exceeding 10 minutes after shutdown. B) Before starting the engine. C) During flight. D) Every hour during flight.

How many pitot-static systems are there on the Cessna Grand Caravan?. A) Two independent pitot-static systems. B) One pitot-static system. C) Three pitot-static systems. D) Four pitot-static systems.

The starter-generator is a ….. volt, ….. amp engine-driven unit. A) 28 volt; 200 amp. B) 24 volt; 150 amp. C) 12 volt; 100 amp. D) 32 volt; 250 amp.

With the external power switch in the STARTER position: A) No external power is supplied to the aircraft. B) External power is supplied to the main bus and no power is available to the starter. C) External power is supplied to the starter and no power is available to the main bus. D) External power is supplied to the starter and battery power is supplied to the main bus.

"The exhaust system consists of a primary pipe with a secondary exhaust duct of a larger diameter positioned over the end of the primary duct. What does this create?". A) A cooling mechanism for the exhaust gases. B) A thrust vectoring effect for improved engine performance. C) A noise-reducing mechanism for quieter engine operation. D) A venturi effect that generates suction behind the oil cooler increasing the flow of cooling air.

The primary wing flap motor is ____ driven?. A) Electrically. B) Hydraulically. C) Pneumatically. D) Mechanically.

Choose the correct statement below: A) The propeller blade pitch is controlled manually by the pilot using a lever in the cockpit. B) The propeller blade pitch is controlled solely by the engine RPM. C) The propeller utilizes oil pressure which opposes the force of springs and counter-weights to obtain correct pitch for engine loads. D) The propeller blade pitch is controlled automatically by the engine computer.

The Propeller Overspeed Governor acts as a: A) Safeguard against propeller overspeed should the primary propeller governor fail. B) Mechanism to increase propeller RPM during takeoff. C) System to reduce propeller pitch during descent. D) Device to enhance propeller efficiency at high altitudes.

The minimum battery voltage required for a start using the aircraft battery is;. A) 24 V. B) 20 V. C) 28 V. D) 32 V.

The primary governor: A) 10 primary and 4 secondary. B) Is also connected to the beta valve, and in case of a power turbine over speed, limits fuel to the engine. C) Controls the propeller pitch directly. D) Maintains a constant speed of the propeller regardless of engine power.

With the fuel boost pump switch positioned to NORM: A) The fuel boost pump operates intermittently. B) The fuel boost pump is deactivated. C) The fuel boost pump operates continuously. D) The fuel boost pump is armed and operates if the fuel manifold pressure drops below 4.75 psi.

The ignition system has two positions, ON and NORMAL. The ON position is used: A) During flight through heavy precipitation, and in the SOP, for landing and take-off. B) Only during take-off and landing. C) During cruise flight. D) During engine start-up.

A solid yellow symbol on the TAS (Traffic Advisory System), with -03 indication, means: A) Traffic is 3 miles away and at the same altitude as your aircraft. B) Traffic is very close and 300 feet above your aircraft. C) Traffic is very close and 300 feet below your aircraft. D) Traffic is 3 miles away and 300 feet below your aircraft.

The start procedure should be aborted if: A) All of the options are correct. B) The engine oil pressure drops below 40 psi. C) The engine fails to start within 30 seconds. D) The engine ITT exceeds 1090 degrees Celsius.

What is the RPM limit for the propeller governor test?. A) 1765+/- 60RPM. B) 2000+/- 100 RPM. C) 1700+/- 50 RPM. D) 1750+/- 60 RPM.

What type of wing flap system is incorporated in the Cessna Grand Caravan?. A) Single-slot type incorporating leading edge vortex generators. B) Double-slot type. C) Triple-slot type. D) Fowler-type.

With the control lock installed: A) You cannot move any flight controls. B) You can still tow the aircraft. C) You cannot tow the aircraft. D) You cannot start the engine.

The torque meter device is located: A) In the engine oil sump. B) In the power turbine. C) In the accessory gearbox. D) In the reduction gearbox.

With the External Power switch in the START position: A) The GPU is connected to the battery, but not to the starter. B) The GPU is disconnected and only the battery is supplying power. C) The GPU is disconnected and no power is supplied. D) The GPU is connected to the starter and the battery to all other equipment.

The propeller must not be left in beta for long periods when there is a crosswind from the right on our Caravan aircraft because: A) The propeller blades could become damaged. B) The propeller could lose control authority. C) The propeller slipstream is required to keep excess heat away from the cargo pod. D) The propeller could develop a vibration.

When the take-off torque setting according to the Engine Torque For Take-off chart in the POH is less than 1865 ft-lbs: A) The aircraft must be loaded with more fuel. B) The air conditioning must be turned on. C) The engine must be shut down. D)The air conditioning must be turned off.

During start, the maximum ITT allowed is: A) 1000 degrees Celsius for 5 seconds. B) 1000 degrees Celsius for 5 seconds. C) 1050 degrees Celsius for 10 seconds. D) 1090 degrees Celsius for 2 seconds.

If the engine oil pressure is slightly below 85 PSI during flight at cruise power settings: A) The flight may be completed, preferably at a reduced power setting. B) The engine should be shut down immediately. C) The aircraft should make an emergency landing. D) The oil should be topped up immediately.

What does the CAS message ‘L P/S HEAT (AMBER)’ mean?. A) Indicates that either the left side pitot / static vane heater system has malfunctioned or the left pitot heat circuit breaker has been pulled. B) Indicates a failure in the left landing gear proximity sensor. C) Indicates a problem with the left propeller. D) Indicates a failure in the left fuel pressure system.

For maximum brake life: A) Brakes should not be used unless absolutely necessary. B) Brakes should be continuously applied during taxiing. C) Brakes should be applied abruptly during landing. D) When conditions permit, temporary hard brake application is beneficial.

State the maximum take-off weight of the C208 WITHOUT payload extender kit. A) 8785 lbs. B) 9000 lbs. C) 9500 lbs. D) 8750 lbs.

The Igniters should be used: A) All of the options are correct. B) During flight through heavy precipitation. C) During take-off and landing. D) During engine start-up.

Fuel remaining in the engine after engine shut down: A) Drains into the main fuel tanks. B) Drains into a fireproof fuel can on the firewall. C) Is burned off by the APU. D) Is recycled back into the engine for the next start.

What indications are available to the pilot that a loss of vacuum has occurred in the aircraft vacuum system (C208B G1000 type aircraft)?. A) An orange warning flag appears on the standby attitude indicator. B) An amber warning light illuminates on the instrument panel. C) A red warning flag appears on the primary attitude indicator. D) An audible alarm sounds in the cockpit.

Engine compressor stall can be somewhat eliminated by use of: A) Turning on the bleed air heat. B) Increasing throttle input. C) Turning off the fuel boost pump. D) Activating the standby alternator.

The turbine section: A) Includes a single-stage compressor turbine and a single-stage power turbine. B) Includes a multi-stage compressor turbine and a multi-stage power turbine.

Engine compressor stall can be somewhat eliminated by use of: A) Turning off the fuel boost pump. B) Increasing throttle input. C) Turning on the bleed air heat. D) Activating the standby alternator.

The turbine section: A) Includes a single-stage compressor turbine and a multi-stage power turbine. B) Includes a multi-stage compressor turbine and a multi-stage power turbine. C) Includes a single-stage compressor turbine and a single-stage power turbine. D) Includes a multi-stage compressor turbine and a single-stage power turbine.

What does the CAS message ‘R P/S HEAT (AMBER)’ mean?. A) Indicates that either the right side pitot / static vane heater system has malfunctioned or the right pitot heat circuit breaker has been pulled. B) Indicates a failure in the right landing gear proximity sensor. C) Indicates a problem with the right propeller. D) Indicates a failure in the right fuel pressure system.

What is the function of the torque meter in the Cessna Grand Caravan?. A) Measures the torque applied to the engine crankshaft. B) Measures the torque applied to the propeller shaft. C) Measures the torque applied to the landing gear. D) Measures the torque applied to the control surfaces.

The PT6A-114A engine is equipped with how many igniter plugs?. A) Eight. B) Four. C) Six. D) Two.

The starter-generator system operates at: A) 14 volts. B) 24 volts. C) 28 volts. D) 32 volts.

When should the fuel boost pump be turned on?. A) During engine start-up only. B) Whenever the fuel pressure drops below 4.75 psi. C) During take-off and landing. D) Only in the event of an engine failure.

The Cessna Grand Caravan is equipped with a _____ propeller. A) Fixed-pitch. B) Constant-speed. C) Variable-pitch. D) Feathering.

The standby attitude indicator in the C208B G1000 type aircraft is powered by: A) The main electrical system. B) An independent battery. C) The vacuum system. D) The avionics bus.

The wing spoilers on the Caravan 208 G1000: A: Are used as speed reduction devices. B: Balance control forces in the aileron system. C: Increase the effectiveness of the flaps. D: Improve lateral control of the aircraft at low speeds.

The rudder lock: A: Must be pulled out during engine start. B: Must be released before towing the aircraft. C: Must be pushed in to lock the rudder. D: Is on the center pedestal.

The rudder trim system: A: Operates a trim tab on the rudder. B: Is operated electrically. C: Is controlled by a knob on the instrument panel. D: Moves only the rudder.