1. The plane that passes vertically through the body dividing it into anterior and posterior
halves is termed the:
(A) midsagittal plane (B) midcoronal plane
(C) sagittal plane
(D) transverse plane.
The position of the hypersthenic gallbladder, as compared to the position of the asthenic
gallbladder, is more:
(A) superior and lateral
(B) superior and medial
(C) inferior and lateral
(D) inferior and medial.
3. What is the relationship between the midsagittal and transverse planes?
(A) parallel
(B) perpendicular
(C) 45 degree
(D) 70 degree.
4. The best way to control voluntary motion is:
(A) immobilization
(B) careful explanation
(C) short exposure time
(D) physical restraint.
5. Prior to x-ray examinations of the skull and cervical spine, the patient should remove:
1. dentures
2. earrings
3. necklaces
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
6. Image identification markers should include:
1. patient’s name and/or ID number
2. date
3. a right or left marker
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
7. The radiographer should be able to:
1. take a short patient history prior to the examination
2. modify routine positions to obtain similar images in patients unable to move
3. evaluate patient condition and needs
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
8. With the patient recumbent and head positioned at a lower level than the feet, the patient
is said to be in the:
(A) Trendelenburg position
(B) Fowler position
(C) decubitus position
(D) Sims position.
9. Before bringing the patient into the radiographic room, the radiographer should:
1. be certain that the x-ray room is clean and orderly
2. check that all necessary accessories are available in room
3. check for clean x-ray table and fresh pillowcases
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
10. The lower portion of the costal margin is approximately at the same level as the:
(A) mid-thorax
(B) umbilicus
(C) xiphoid tip
(D) third lumbar vertebra.
1. Required components of a digital fluoroscopy system include:
1. computer
2. video monitor
3. image manipulation console
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
2. What is used to account for the relative radiosensitivity of various tissues and organs?
1. radiation weighting factors (Wr)
2. tissue weighting factors (Wt)
3. absorbed dose
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
3. Which of the following statements regarding Figures 16–1A and B is true?
(A) In Figure 16–1A, the CR and plantar surface form a 30-degree angle
(B) In Figure 16–1A, the CR and plantar surface form a 60-degree angle
(C) In Figure 16–1B, the CR and plantar surface form a 30-degree angle
(D) In Figure 16–1B, the CR and plantar surface form a 60-degree angle
.
4. Photostimulable luminescence occurs when the PSL is exposed to:
(A) monochromatic laser light
(B) barium fluorohalide
(C) high-energy x-ray photons
(D) low-energy x-ray photons.
5. Structures located in the LUQ of the average adult include:
1. ascending colon
2. spleen
3. pancreatic tail
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
6. When reviewing patient blood chemistry levels, what is considered the normal creatinine
range?
(A) 0.6–1.5 mg/100 mL
(B) 4.5–6 mg/100 mL
(C) 8–25 mg/100 mL
(D) up to 50 mg/100 mL.
7. Symptoms of imminent anaphylactic shock include:
1. dysphagia
2. itching of palms and soles
3. constriction of the throat
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
8. Which of the following is/are well demonstrated in the lateral position of the cervical
spine?
1. intervertebral foramina
2. apophyseal joints
3. intervertebral joints
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
9. The effects of radiation to biologic material are dependent on several factors. If a quantity
of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect:
(A) will be greater than if it were delivered all at one time
(B) will be less than if it were delivered all at one time
(C) has no relation to how it is delivered in time
(D) is solely dependent on the radiation quality.
10. Which ethical principle below is most closely related to truth telling?
(A) autonomy
(B) beneficence
(C) fidelity
(D) veracity.
11. Somatic effects of radiation refer to effects that are manifested:
(A) in the descendants of the exposed individual
(B) during the life of the exposed individual
(C) in the exposed individual and their descendants
(D) in the reproductive cells of the exposed individual.
12. The right colic flexure is formed by the junction of the:
(A) transverse and ascending colon
(B) descending and transverse colon
(C) descending and sigmoid colon
(D) cecum and ascending colon.
13. Which of the following imaging procedures do not require the use of ionizing radiation to
produce an image?
1. sonography
2. computerized tomography
3. magnetic resonance imaging
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
14. An abnormal passage between organs is a/an:
(A) fistula
(B) polyp
(C) diverticulum
(D) abscess.
15. The position seen in Figure 16–2, used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa, requires
that the CR be directed:
(A) vertically to the joint space
(B) parallel to the long axis of the tibia
(C) perpendicular to the long axis of the tibia
(D) perpendicular to the joint space.
16. Symptoms of shock include:
1. pallor and weakness
2. increased pulse rate
3. fever
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
17. Red blood cells are formed in the:
(A) liver
(B) spleen
(C) bone marrow
(D) small intestine.
18. The term effective dose refers to:
(A) whole-body dose
(B) localized organ dose
(D) somatic and genetic effects
(E) flexion and extension laterals (C) genetic effects
.
19. With the body in the erect position, the diaphragm moves:
(A) 2–4 inches higher than when recumbent
(B) 2–4 inches lower than when recumbent
(C) 2–4 inches superiorly
(D) very slightly.
20. With all other factors constant, as a digital image’s matrix size increases:
1. pixel size decreases
2. resolution increases
3. pixel size increases
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 2 and 3 only.
21. During a gastrointestinal examination, the AP recumbent projection of a stomach of average
shape will usually demonstrate:
1. barium-filled fundus
2. double-contrast of distal stomach portions
3. barium-filled duodenum and pylorus
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
22. An ambulatory patient is one who:
(A) is able to walk
(B) is unable to walk
(C) has difficulty breathing
(D) arrives by ambulance.
23. In which of the following positions was the radiograph seen in Figure 16–3 made?
(A) AP erect
(B) PA recumbent
(C) right lateral decubitus
(D) left lateral decubitus.
24. Advantages of moving the image intensifier closer to the patient during fluoroscopy include:
1. decreased SID
2. decreased patient dose
3. improved image quality
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
25. The exposure factors used for a particular nongrid radiograph were 400 mA, 0.02 second,
and 90 kV. Another radiograph using an 8:1 grid is requested. Which of the following
groups of factors is most appropriate?
(A) 400 mA, 0.02 second, 110 kV
(B) 200 mA, 0.08 second, 90 kV
(C) 300 mA, 0.05 second, 100 kV
(D) 400 mA, 0.08 second, 90 kV.
26. Which of the “curves” seen in Figure 16–4 best illustrates the dynamic range of a computed
radiography image plate?
(A) curve A
(B) curve B
(C) both represent a CR PSP/IP
(D) neither represents a CR PSP/IP.
27. Which of the following factor(s) is (are) important in determining thickness of protective
barriers?
1. distance between x-ray source and barrier
2. occupancy factor time
3. workload (mA-min/wk)
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
28. An autoclave is used for:
(A) dry heat sterilization
(B) chemical sterilization
(C) gas sterilization
(D) steam sterilization.
29. When examining the fourth and fifth fingers in the lateral position, which side of the forearm
should be closest to the image receptor?
(A) anterior
(B) posterior
(C) medial
(D) lateral.
30. The input phosphor of the image intensifier tube functions to convert:
(A) kinetic energy to light
(B) x-ray to light
(C) electrons to light
(D) fluorescent light to electrons.
31. Recorded detail can be improved by decreasing:
1. the SID
2. the OID
3. motion unsharpness
(A) 1 only
(B) 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
32. Examples of primary radiation barriers include:
1. x-ray room walls
2. control booth
3. lead aprons
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
33. Which of the following formulas would the radiographer use to determine the total
number of heat units produced with a given exposure using 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment?
(A) mA × time × kV
(B) mA × time × kV × 3.0
(C) mA × time × kV × 1.35
(D) mA × time × kV × 1.41.
34. Diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air include:
1. tuberculosis
2. mumps
3. rubella
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
35. Which of the following image matrix sizes will provide the best spatial resolution?
(A) 256 × 256
(B) 512 × 512
(C) 1024 × 1024
(D) 2048 × 2048.
36. In which of the following positions was the radiograph seen in Figure 16–5 made?
(A) AP erect
(B) PA recumbent
(C) right lateral decubitus
(D) dorsal decubitus.
37. The photoelectric process is an interaction between an x-ray photon and:
(A) an inner shell electron
(B) an outer shell electron
(C) a nucleus
(D) another photon.
38. What transforms the violet light emitted by the PSP into the image seen on the CRT?
(A) the photostimulable phosphor
(B) the scanner/reader
(C) the ADC
(D) the helium–neon laser.
39. When imaging the skull with the OML perpendicular to the image receptor and the CR
directed 25-degrees cephalad:
1. the occipital bone is well demonstrated
2. the dorsum sella is seen within the foramen magnum
3. the petrous pyramids fill the orbits
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
40. A profile view of the glenoid fossa can be obtained with the CR directed perpendicular to
the glenoid fossa and the patient rotated:
(A) 20-degree affected side down
(B) 20-degree affected side up
(C) 45-degree affected side down
(D) 45-degree affected side up.
41. Characteristics of nonstochastic effects of radiation include:
1. they have predictability
2. they have a threshold
3. severity is directly related to dose
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
42. Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called:
1. antiseptics
2. germicides
3. disinfectants
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
43. How is the thickness of the tomographic section related to the tomographic angle?
(A) the greater the tomographic angle, the thicker the section
(B) the greater the tomographic angle, the thinner the section
(C) the lesser the tomographic angle, the thinner the section
(D) the tomographic angle is unrelated to section thickness.
44. In which of the following locations can the pulse be detected only by the use of a stethoscope?
(A) wrist
(B) apex of the heart
(C) groin
(D) neck.
45. Mobile fluoroscopic equipment has all of the following features, except:
(A) an image intensifier
(B) a spot-film device
(C) a TV monitor
(D) a TV camera.
46. In which position was the radiograph seen in Figure 16–6B made?
(A) AP erect
(B) AP recumbent
(C) PA erect
(D) PA recumbent.
47. What portion of a CR cassette records the radiologic image?
(A) the photostimulable phosphor
(B) the scanner/reader
(C) the emulsion
(D) the helium–neon laser.
48. The following bones participate in the formation of the knee joint:
1. femur
2. tibia
3. patella
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
49. During GI radiography, the position of the stomach often varies depending on:
1. respiratory phase
2. body habitus
3. patient position
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
50. To better demonstrate ribs below the diaphragm:
1. suspend respiration at the end of full exhalation
2. suspend respiration at the end of deep inhalation
3. perform the examination in the recumbent position
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only.
51. Any wall that the useful x-ray beam can be directed toward is called a:
(A) secondary barrier
(B) primary barrier
(C) leakage barrier
(D) scattered barrier.
52. In which of the following positions should you place a patient who is experiencing syncope?
(A) dorsal recumbent with head elevated
(B) dorsal recumbent with feet elevated
(C) lateral recumbent
(D) seated with feet supported.
53. The phenomenon in which the radiographic information recorded on the PSP/IP upon
exposure to x-rays decreases with the elapsed time until it is read by the scanner/reader is
termed:
(A) excitation
(B) photostimulable luminescence
(C) scatter
(D) fading.
54. Classify the following tissues in order of decreasing radiosensitivity:
1. liver cells
2. intestinal crypt cells
3. muscle cells
(A) 1, 3, 2
(B) 2, 3, 1
(C) 2, 1, 3
(D) 3, 1, 2.
55. Which of the following can contribute to radiographic image distortion?
1. tube angle
2. the position of the organ or structure within the body
3. radiographic positioning of the part
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
56. Glenohumeral joint dislocation can be evaluated with which of the following?
1. inferosuperior axial
2. transthoracic lateral
3. scapular Y projection
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
57. A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate
which of the following structure(s)?
1. pylorus
2. sigmoid
3. duodenum
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 3 only.
58. Under which of the following conditions is biologic material most sensitive to radiation
exposure?
(A) anoxic
(B) hypoxic
(C) oxygenated
(D) deoxygenated.
59. Which of the following conditions will demonstrate least x-ray penetrability?
(A) fibrosarcoma
(B) osteomalacia
(C) paralytic ileus
(D) ascites.
60. The image intensifier’s input phosphor is generally composed of:
(A) cesium iodide
(B) zinc cadmium sulfide
(C) gadolinium oxysulfide
(D) calcium tungstate.
61. What does the letter M represent in Figure 16–7?
(A) scaphoid
(B) pisiform
(C) trapezium
(D) hamate.
62. Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of:
1. uterine tubal patency
2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity
3. uterine position
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
63. Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed for better visualization
of:
(A) position of the organ
(B) size and shape of the organ
(C) diverticula
(D) gastric or bowel mucosa.
64. If the exposure rate at 3 feet from the fluoroscopic table is 40 mR/h, what will be the
exposure rate for 30 minutes at a distance of 5 feet from the table?
(A) 7 mR
(B) 12 mR
(C) 14 mR
(D) 24 mR.
65. The medical suffix plasia refers to:
(A) embryonic
(B) condition
(C) movement
(D) development.
66. The AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull best demonstrates the:
(A) occipital bone
(B) frontal bone
(C) facial bones
(D) sphenoid bone.
67. Structures found within the mediastinum include all of the following, except the:
(A) esophagus
(B) thymus
(C) heart
(D) terminal bronchiole.
68. A student radiographer who is younger than 18 years must not receive an annual occupational
dose greater than:
(A) 0.1 rem (1 mSv)
(B) 0.5 rem (5 mSv)
(C) 5 rem (50 mSv)
(D) 10 rem (100 mSv).
69. Proper body mechanics includes a wide base of support. The base of support is the portion
of the body:
(A) in contact with the floor or other horizontal surface
(B) in the midportion of the pelvis or lower abdomen
(C) passing through the center of gravity
(D) none of the above.
70. In which of the following projections or positions will subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation
be best demonstrated?
(A) tangential
(B) AP axial
(C) transthoracic lateral
(D) PA oblique scapular Y.
71. Accurate operation of the AEC device is dependent on:
1. thickness and density of the object
2. positioning of the object with respect to the ionization chamber
3. beam restriction
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
72. Major effect(s) of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) irradiation include:
1. malignant disease
2. chromosome aberration
3. cell death
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
73. The voltage ripple associated with a 3-phase, 12-pulse rectified generator is approximately:
(A) 100%
(B) 32%
(C) 13%
(D) 3%.
74. When a radiographer is obtaining patient history, both subjective and objective data should
be obtained. An example of subjective data is:
(A) the patient appears to have a productive cough
(B) the patient has a blood pressure of 130/95
(C) the patient states he/she experiences extreme pain in the upright position
(D) the patient has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant of the left breast.
75. The exposed PSP is subjected to a narrow laser beam:
(A) on the display monitor
(B) in the scanner/reader
(C) in the cassette
(D) on the film emulsion.
76. What is the best way to reduce magnification distortion?
(A) use a small focal spot
(B) increase the SID
(C) decrease the OID
(D) use a slow screen–film combination.
77. Which of the following medical abbreviations mean three times a day?
(A) TID
(B) QID
(C) QH
(D) PC.
78. The energy of x-ray photons has an inverse relationship with:
1. photon wavelength
2. applied mA
3. applied kV
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
79. Cervical spine positions performed to demonstrate the intervertebral foramina closest to
the image receptor are:
(A) RAO and LAO
(B) RPO and LPO
(C) AP and lateral.
80. A patient was positioned for a radiographic projection with the x-ray tube, grid, and image
receptor properly aligned but the body part angled. Which of the following will result?
(A) grid cutoff at the periphery of the image
(B) grid cutoff along the center of the image
(C) increased density at the periphery
(D) image distortion.
81. It is recommended that PSPs be read soon after exposure, principally to avoid:
(A) aliasing artifacts
(B) image fading
(C) overdevelopment
(D) excessive brightness.
82. What does the letter D represent in Figure 16–8?
(A) fundus
(B) pylorus
(C) body of stomach
(D) bulb of duodenum.
83. What does the letter H represent in Figure 16–8?
(A) jejunum
(B) ascending duodenum
(C) descending duodenum
(D) bulb of duodenum.
84. What structure occupies the area represented by the letter G in Figure 16–8?
(A) gallbladder
(B) right lobe of the liver
(C) head of the pancreas
(D) hepatic flexure of the colon.
85. In what position was the radiograph seen in Figure 16–8 made?
(A) AP
(B) LPO
(C) RAO
(D) Lateral.
86. What will result from using double-emulsion film in a cassette having a single intensifying
screen?
(A) double exposure
(B) decreased density
(C) increased recorded detail
(D) greater latitude.
87. Most laser film must be handled:
(A) under a Wratten 6B safelight
(B) in total darkness
(C) under a GBX safelight
(D) with high-temperature processors.
88. Which of the following will have an effect on radiographic contrast?
1. beam restriction
2. grids
3. focal spot size
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
89. Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure?
1. pulse oximeter
2. stethoscope
3. sphygmomanometer
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
90. Which of the following statements regarding human gonadal cells is/are accurate?
1. the female oogonia reproduce only during fetal life
2. the male spermatogonia reproduce continuously
3. both male and female stem cells reproduce only during fetal life
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 3 only.
91. Underexposure of a radiograph can be caused by all of the following, except:
(A) insufficient mA
(B) insufficient exposure time
(C) insufficient kV
(D) insufficient SID.
92. Exposure rate increases with an increase in:
1. mA
2. kV
3. SID
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
93. Characteristics of anemia include:
1. decreased number of circulating red blood cells
2. decreased hemoglobin
3. hematuria
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
94. Developer solution is prevented from entering the fixer tank in automatic processing by the:
(A) guide shoes
(B) rollers
(C) switch
(D) timer.
95. The artifacts seen in Figure 16–9 are representative of:
(A) safelight fog
(B) inadequate developer replenishment
(C) guide shoe marks
(D) hair braids.
96. Which of these radiation exposure situations is likely to be the most harmful?
(A) a large dose to a specific area all at once
(B) a small dose to the whole body over a period of time
(C) a large dose to the whole body all at one time
(D) a small dose to a specific area over a period of time.
97. Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?
(A) AP
(B) 90-degree mediolateral
(C) 45-degree internal rotation
(D) 45-degree external rotation.
98. Chemical substances that inhibit growth of pathogenic microorganisms without necessarily
killing them are called:
1. antiseptics
2. germicides
3. disinfectants
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
99. Which of the following is a vasopressor and may be used for an anaphylactic reaction or
cardiac arrest?
(A) nitroglycerin
(B) epinephrine
(C) hydrocortisone
(D) digitoxin.
100. The absorption of excessive primary radiation by a grid is called:
(A) grid selectivity
(B) contrast improvement factor
(C) grid cutoff
(D) latitude.
101. Hormonal factors that increase the risk of a woman developing breast cancer include:
1. family history
2. early menses
3. nulliparity
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
102. In which aspect of the orbital wall a “blowout fracture” usually occurs?
(A) superior
(B) inferior
(C) medial
(D) lateral.
103. The histogram demonstration of pixel value distribution can be changed/affected by the
following:
1. selection of processing algorithm
2. processing delay
3. centering
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
104. What activator is required for barium fluorohalide to retain its luminous properties?
(A) cesium
(B) iodine
(C) europium
(D) gadolinium.
105. By which of the following dose–response curves are late or long-term effects of radiation
exposure generally represented?
(A) linear threshold
(B) linear nonthreshold
(C) nonlinear threshold
(D) nonlinear nonthreshold.
106. The most important scattering object in both radiography and fluoroscopy is the:
(A) x-ray table
(B) x-ray tube
(C) patient
(D) cassette.
107. Typical examples of digital imaging include:
1. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
2. computed tomography (CT)
3. pluridirectional tomography
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
108. Special beam-shaping optics are used in the CR reader to keep the infrared laser scanning
light finely focused in order to:
1. collect analog data
2. improve SNR
3. maintain good spatial resolution
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
109. Which of the following is a fast acting vasodilator used to lower blood pressure and relieve
the pain of angina pectoris?
(A) digitalis
(B) Dilantin
(C) nitroglycerin
(D) cimetidine (Tagamet).
110. In the parieto-orbital projection (Rhese method) of the optic canal, the median sagittal
plane and central ray form what angle?
(A) 90 degrees
(B) 37 degrees
(C) 53 degrees
(D) 45 degrees.
111. A radiographic image exhibiting few shades of gray between black and white is said to
possess:
(A) no contrast
(B) high contrast
(C) low contrast
(D) little contrast.
112. A small bottle containing a single dose of medication is termed:
(A) an ampule
(B) a vial
(C) a bolus
(D) a carafe.
113. An increase in kV will have which of the following effects?
1. more scatter radiation will be produced
2. the exposure rate will increase
3. radiographic contrast will increase
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
114. Which of the following is the most proximal structure on the adult ulna?
(A) capitulum
(B) styloid process
(C) coronoid process
(D) olecranon process.
115. In Figure 16–10, the letter E represents the:
(A) trochlea
(B) capitulum
(C) lateral epicondyle
(D) medial epicondyle.
116. In Figure 16–10, the letter D represents the:
(A) trochlea
(B) capitulum
(C) lateral epicondyle
(D) medial epicondyle.
117. What is the intensity of scattered radiation perpendicular to and 1 meter from the patient,
compared to the useful beam at the patient’s surface?
(A) 0.01%
(B) 0.1%
(C) 1.0%
(D) 10.0%.
118. Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25-degree LPO position with the central ray
entering 1-inch medial to the elevated anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS)?
(A) left sacroiliac joint
(B) right sacroiliac joint
(C) left ilium
(D) right ilium.
119. A 3-inch object to be radiographed at 36-inches SID lies 4 inches from the image receptor.
What will be the image width?
(A) 2.6 inches
(B) 3.3 inches
(C) 26 inches
(D) 33 inches.
120. The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and:
(A) in a slight oblique, affected side adjacent to image receptor
(B) in a slight oblique, affected side away from image receptor
(C) erect, weight bearing
(D) erect, with and without weights.
121. Which of the following criteria are required for accurate visualization of the greater tubercle
in profile?
1. epicondyles parallel to the image receptor
2. arm in external rotation
3. humerus in AP position
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
122. All of the following positions are likely to be employed for both single-contrast and doublecontrast
examinations of the large bowel, except:
(A) lateral rectum
(B) AP axial rectosigmoid
(C) right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
(D) RAO and LAO abdomen.
123. In which of the following conditions is protective or “reverse” isolation required?
1. tuberculosis
2. burns
3. leukemia
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
124. Which of the following devices functions to produce hard copies of digital images?
(A) digitizer
(B) laser printer
(C) histogram
(D) CRT.
125. With all other factors remaining the same, as grid ratio is increased:
(A) recorded detail decreases
(B) optical density decreases
(C) focal spot distortion decreases
(D) the scale of contrast becomes longer.
126. The best way to control voluntary motion is:
(A) immobilization of the part
(B) careful explanation of the procedure
(C) short exposure time
(D) physical restraint.
127. The manubrial notch, a bony landmark used in radiography of the sternoclavicular joints,
is located at the same level as the:
(A) vertebra prominens
(B) first thoracic vertebra
(C) third thoracic vertebra
(D) ninth thoracic vertebra.
128. Which of the following functions to protect the x-ray tube and patient from overexposure
in the event the automatic exposure control fails to terminate an exposure?
(A) circuit breaker
(B) backup timer
(C) rheostat
(D) fuse.
129. Which of the following would be appropriate cassette front material?
1. tungsten
2. magnesium
3. Bakelite
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
130. The following statement(s) is (are) accurate with respect to the differences between the
male and female bony pelvis:
1. the female pelvic outlet is wider
2. the pubic angle is 90 degrees or fewer in the male
3. the male pelvis is more shallow
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
131. In the lateral projection of the foot, the:
1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the image receptor
2. metatarsals are superimposed
3. talofibular joint should be visualized
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
132. The film artifact seen in Figure 16–11 is representative of:
(A) processor artifact
(B) exposure artifact
(C) handling artifact
(D) chemical fog.
133. The factor(s) that can be used to regulate radiographic density is (are):
1. milliamperage
2. exposure time
3. kilovoltage
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
134. By which of the following tests is intensifying screen contact evaluated?
(A) spinning top test
(B) wire-mesh test
(C) penetrometer test
(D) star-pattern test.
135. The mechanical device used to correct an ineffectual cardiac rhythm is a:
(A) defibrillator
(B) cardiac monitor
(C) crash cart
(D) resuscitation bag.
136. The term that refers to parts closer to the source or beginning is:
(A) cephalad
(B) caudad
(C) proximal
(D) medial.
137. The blue–green PSL that corresponds to the visible x-ray image occurs:
1. immediately upon the initial prompt emission of light
2. some time after the initial prompt emission of light
3. upon stimulation by finely focused infrared light
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
138. As a result of the anode heel effect, the intensity of the x-ray beam is greatest along
the:
(A) path of the central ray
(B) anode end of the beam
(C) cathode end of the beam
(D) transverse axis of the image receptor.
139. The AP projection of the scapula requires that the:
1. patient’s arm be abducted at right angles to the body
2. patient’s elbow be flexed with hand supinated
3. exposure be made during quiet breathing
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3.
140. The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified
as:
(A) neurogenic
(B) cardiogenic
(C) hypovolemic
(D) septic.
|
