testpresp2

The static air temperature (SAT) is : an absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsius. a differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin. a relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsius. a relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin.

VNE is the maximum speed : which must never be exceeded. not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution. at which the flight controls can be fully deflected. with flaps extended in landing position.

With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a : decreasing speed. constant speed. increasing speed. fluctuating speed.

During a climb after take-off from a contaminated runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated airspeed : increases steadily. increases abruptly towards VNE. decreases stadily. decreases abruptly towards zero.

Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited : initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level. initially by theVMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level. by the MMO. by the VMO in still air.

If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the local speed of sound is : 596 kt. 247 kt. 307 kt. 686 kt.

During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) : The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) increases. The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant. The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) is constant. The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS) decreases.

The mach number is the: true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound. corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of sound. indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of sound. equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of sound.

Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on : temperature. temperature and the pressure. pressure. density.

The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is: 661 kt. 1059 kt. 644 kt. 332 kt.

A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator: Contains its own separate gyro. Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the alternator fails. Is fully independent of external energy resources in an emergency situation. Only works of there is a complete electrical failure.

The rate-of-turn is the: a) change-of-heading rate of the aircraft. b) yaw rate in a turn. c) aircraft speed in a turn. d) pitch rate in a turn.

The data supplied by a radio altimeter: indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft. concerns only the decision height. is used only by the radio altimeter indicator. is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.

A radio altimeter can be defined as a : self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft. self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft. ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft. ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft.

During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true: height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time. height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time. height of the aircraft with regard to the runway. altitude of the aircraft.

The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to: piloting. weather situation. engines and alarms. systems.

Mach Trim is a device to compensate for : backing of the aerodynamic center at high Mach numbers by moving the elevator to nose-up. the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal tail. the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach. weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise.

The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active for a height range from: 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter. 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter. 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter. 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a system working according to a height span ranging from : 50 ft to 2 500 ft. the ground to 1 000 ft. 30 ft to 5 000 ft. the ground to 500 ft.

A ""TCAS II"" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides: the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only. a simple intruding airplane proximity warning. the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes. the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only.

The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems) is based on the use of : transponders fitted in the aircraft. airborne weather radar system. F.M.S. (Flight Management System). air traffic control radar systems.

When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) generates a : ""traffic advisory"" and vertical ""resolution advisory"". ""traffic advisory"" and horizontal ""resolution advisory"". ""traffic advisory"" only. ""traffic advisory"", vertical and horizontal ""resolution advisory"".

An ""intruding traffic advisory"" is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying : a yellow full circle. a blue or white empty lozenge. a blue or white full lozenge. a red full square.

A ""resolution advisory"" (RA) is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by a : red full square. blue or white full lozenge. blue or white empty lozenge. red full circle.

The total air temperature (TAT) is always : higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS). higher lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS). higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude. lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the altitude.

When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an aeroplane will be : extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control to change pitch. extremely stable and require small elevator control to change pitch. extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to change pitch. extremely unstable and require small elevator control to change pitch.

If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight the elevator control will : become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch. become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manouevre in pitch. become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch. become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manouevre in pitch.

An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards the rear limit. This will result in : an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane moment. a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag. an increase in longitudinal stability. a reduction in power required for a given speed.

During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than expected. This is an indication that : the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit. the aeroplane is overloaded. the centre of gravity is too far forward. the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.

If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the aeroplane will: require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel consumption. benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of attack. require less power for a given airspeed. tend to over rotate during take-off.

With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of the following is to be expected?. A decrease in range. A decrease in the landing speed. A decrease of the stalling speed. A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off.

The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the: strength of the wing root. strength of the fuselage. allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin for fuel tanking. total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing.

The maximum certificated take - off mass is : a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take - off. a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome altitude and temperature. a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient of climb after reaching V2 . limited by the runway take off distance available. It is tabulated in the Flight Manual.

The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes : Crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passenger service equipment, potable water and lavatory chemicals. Unusable fuel and reserve fuel. Fuel and passengers baggage and cargo. Passengers baggage and cargo.

The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of : The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel. The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including traffic load and fuel load. The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not including the fuel load and operational items. The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel load and the traffic load.

The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to: Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load. Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load. Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel. Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel.

An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected and calculated take-off safety speeds. will give reduced safety margins. will not be achieved. will be greater than required. are unaffected but V1 will be increased.

Density altitude is the. pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature. altitude reference to the standard datum plane. altitude read directly from the altimeter. height above the surface.

The Density Altitude. is used to determine the aeroplane performance. is equal to the pressure altitude. is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains. is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.

Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1: is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off. is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed). is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off . is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface.

The speed VS is defined as. stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable. safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway. design stress speed. speed for best specific range.

The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing configuration is abbreviated as. VSO. VS1. VS. VMC.

The rate of climb. is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100. is the downhill component of the true airspeed. is angle of climb times true airspeed. is the horizontal component of the true airspeed.

The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on. the bank angle only. the radius of the turn and the bank angle. the true airspeed and the bank angle. the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane.

An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on landing performance: a reduced landing distance and improved go-around performance. an increased landing distance and degraded go-around performance. an increased landing distance and improved go-around performance. a reduced landing distance and degraded go around performance.

A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other things, the following consequences on take-off performance: an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance. a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb performance. an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb performance. a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb performance.

The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of. the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a percentage. the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a percentage. true airspeed to rate of climb. rate of climb to true airspeed.

A higher outside air temperature. reduces the angle and the rate of climb. increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb. does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance. reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb.

A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be maintainable after engine failure?. Straight flight. Straight flight and altitude. Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min. Altitude.

The speed V1 is defined as. take-off decision speed. take-off climb speed. speed for best angle of climb. engine failure speed.

The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at take-off is. a shorter ground roll. an increased acceleration. a higher V1. a longer take-off run.

Which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial climb performance ?. High temperature and high relative humidity. Low temperature and high relative humidity. High temperature and low relative humidity. Low temperature and low relative humidity.

Due to standing water on the runway the field length limited take-off mass will be. lower. higher. unaffected. only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes.

Which of the following are to be taken into account for the runway in use for takeoff ?. Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, pressure altitude and wind components. Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, standard pressure and wind components. Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, pressure altitude and wind components. Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, standard pressure and wind components.

A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature. decreases the field length limited take-off mass. decreases the take-off distance. increases the climb limited take-off mass. has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.

The take-off distance required increases. due to slush on the runway. due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack. due to head wind because of the drag augmentation. due to lower gross mass at take-off.

The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in : the accelerate-stop distance available. the take-off run available. the take-off distance available. the landing distance available.

Field length is balanced when. take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance. calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG. all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal. one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.

Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the appropriate minimum glide angle speed?. Tailwind. Increase of aircraft mass. Decrease of aircraft mass. Headwind.

The optimum altitude. increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its maximum. decreases as mass decreases. is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its minimum. is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be maintained.

The take-off decision speed V1 is: a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted. not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed. a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted. sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.

Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on directional control being maintained by: primary aerodynamic control only. primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel. primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and differential braking. nosewheel steering only.

The length of a clearway may be included in: the take-off distance available. the accelerate-stop distance available. the take-off run available. the distance to reach V1.

Take-off run is defined as the. horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface. distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1. distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all engine distance to 35 feet. Distance from brake release to V2.

Which of the following statements is correct ?. A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off. An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted take-off. A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off. If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway surface.

Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 value which is limited by VMCA?. Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation. High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation.

During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly above the correct value of V1?. The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance available. The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed the take-off distance available. V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases. It may lead to over-rotation.

With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the following statements is correct?. The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass penalties. When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to maintain the same margins on the runway length. In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used. Screen height cannot be reduced.

The take-off run is. the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 ft above the take-off surface. 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative. 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1. the distance of the point of brake release to a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at V1.

Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?. VMCG, V1, VR, V2. V1, VMCG, VR, V2. V1, VR, VMCG, V2. V1, VR, V2, VMCA.

The speed V2 is. the take-off safety speed. that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not the take-off in the case of an engine failure. the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall problems. the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine failure.

The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as. take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft. lift off speed. take-off decision speed. critical engine failure speed.

Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air minimum control speed)?. Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the critical engine has failed. The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA. The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb gradient. VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes.

In case of an engine failure recognized below V1. the take-off must be rejected. the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available. the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available. the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the balanced V1.

The take-off distance available is. the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available. the runway length minus stopway. the runway length plus half of the clearway. the total runway length, without clearway even if this one exists.

How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass, assuming other factors remain constant and not limiting?. A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass. An uphill slope increases take-off mass. Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope. A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.

Uphill slope. increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate stop distance. decreases the accelerate stop distance only. decreases the take-off distance only. increases the allowed take-off mass.

Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway is correct?. A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce weight penalties. The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same safety margins as for a dry runway. In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway performance information can still be used. Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of reduction in obstacle clearance.

Which statement regarding the influence of a runway down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down-slope... reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR). increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR). reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance required (ASDR). increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required (TODR).

Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: windshear is reported on the take-off path. it is dark. the runway is dry. the runway is wet.

Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used when: the runway is contaminated. it is dark. the runway is wet. obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.

Reduced take-off thrust. has the benefit of improving engine life. can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited take-off mass. is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT). can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10 kt.

What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?. It will decrease the take-off distance required. It will increase the take-off distance required. It will increase the take-off ground run. It will increase the accelerate stop distance.

What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased?. It will increase the take-off distance. It will decrease the take-off distance. It will increase the take-off distance available. It will increase the accelerate stop distance available.

In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane is to: reduce the engine thrust. reverse engine thrust. apply wheel brakes. deploy airbrakes or spoilers.

If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the following statements is true?. The accelerate stop distance increases. The accelerate stop distance decreases. It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance. Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted.

Balanced V1 is selected. if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out take-off distance. for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give the highest mass. for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give the highest mass. if it is equal to V2.

A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where: The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off distance available. The clearway does not equal the stopway. The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance. The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all engine take-off distance.

Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes should be checked. For what reason?. Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in the event of a rejected take-off. To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive. To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly. To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.

A higher outside air temperature (OAT). decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass. increases the field length limited take-off mass. increases the climb limited take-off mass. decreases the take-off distance.

In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35 ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is. the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle corridor. based on pressure altitudes. the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should be completed. the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb thrust.

The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is defined by the following parameters:1 Gear up2 Gear down3 Wing flaps retracted4 Wing flaps in take-off position5 N engines at the take-off thrust6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS9 Speed over the path equal to V210 At a height of 35 ft above the runwayThe correct statements are: 1, 4, 6, 9. 2, 3, 6, 9. 1, 4, 5, 10. 1, 5, 8, 10.

At which minimum height will the second climb segment end?. 400 ft above field elevation. 35 ft above ground. When gear retraction is completed. 1500 ft above field elevation.

The second segment begins. when landing gear is fully retracted. when flap retraction begins. when flaps are selected up. when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.

For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided. by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation. by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation. only by using standard turns. by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.

Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct?. The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing OAT. The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed for best rate of climb. 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining the climb limited take-off mass. On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the aeroplane will always be climb limited.

The first segment of the take-off flight path ends. at completion of gear retraction. at completion of flap retraction. at reaching V2. at 35 ft above the runway.

During take-off the third segment begins: when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started. when landing gear is fully retracted. when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2. when flap retraction is completed.

Which of the following statements with regard to the actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb segment is correct?. The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft. A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special circumstances e.g. noise abatement. The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft. There is no legal minimum value, because this will be determined from case to case during the calculation of the net flight path.

Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance during climb?. The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and forward speed is maximum. V2 + 10 kt. The speed for maximum rate of climb. V2.

If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to 290/.74 the new crossover altitude is. lower. higher. unchanged. only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.

How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?. TAS decreases. TAS increases. TAS is constant. TAS is not related to Mach Number.

A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the pitch angle change?. Reduce / decrease. Reduce / remain constant. Remain constant / decrease. Remain constant / become larger.

A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?. IAS decreases and TAS decreases. IAS increases and TAS increases. IAS decreases and TAS increases. IAS increases and TAS decreases.

What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant Mach number?. The lift coefficient increases. The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to structural problems. IAS stays constant so there will be no problems. The ""1.3G"" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start immediately.

A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?. The Maximum operating Mach number. The Stalling speed. The Minimum control speed air. The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.

Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ?. To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as aeroplane mass reduces. Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less headwind or more tailwind can be expected. Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet aeroplanes, they are used for piston engine aeroplanes only. To respect ATC flight level constraints.

A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the specific range / fuel flow change?. Increase / decrease. Increase / increase. Decrease / increase. Decrease / decrease.

The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum amount of fuel between two airfields. Which flight procedure should the pilot fly?. Maximum range. Maximum endurance. Holding. Long range.

Which of the following is a reason to operate an aeroplane at 'long range speed'?. It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range speed. In order to achieve speed stability. The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed. In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under.

""Maximum endurance"". is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel consumption. is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction. can be flown in a steady climb only. can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level flight.

Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain unchanged). decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required. increases the power required. affects neither drag nor power required. increases the induced drag.

The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit. improves the maximum range. increases the stalling speed. improves the longitudinal stabiity. decreases the maximum range.

The optimum cruise altitude increases. if the aeroplane mass is decreased. if the temperature (OAT) is increased. if the tailwind component is decreased. if the aeroplane mass is increased.

Under which condition should you fly considerably lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?. If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or considerably more tailwind can be expected. If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude. If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude inversion). If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind can be expected.

An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS rule may be up to : 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with one engine inoperative. 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative. 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a normal cruising speed. 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still air with one engine inoperative.

ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is within an area of. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine out cruise speed. 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed. 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed. 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise speed.

The drift down requirements are based on: the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising altitude if an engine has failed. the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine failure. the maximum flight path gradient during the descent. the landing mass limit at the alternate.

With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to: the minimum drag. the critical Mach number. the minimum angle of descent. the maximum lift.

After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should be applied?. Drift Down Procedure. Emergency Descent Procedure. ETOPS. Long Range Cruise Descent.

'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied. after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine out maximum altitude. after cabin depressurization. to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate. to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available.

The drift down procedure specifies requirements concerning the: obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude. engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs. climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude. weight during landing at the alternate.

During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle of the aeroplane will: decrease. increase. increase at first and decrease later on. remain constant.

An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at the IAS reached at FL 270.How does the angle of descent change in the first and in the second part of the descent?Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore compressibility effects. Increases in the first part, is constant in the second. Increases in the first part, decreases in the second. Is constant in the first part, decreases in the second. Decreases in the first part, increases in the second.

A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be exceeded first?. Maximum Operating Speed. Never Exceed Speed. High Speed Buffet Limit. Maximum Operational Mach Number.

To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the pilot should: make a ""positive"" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as possible. use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below the hydroplaning speed. use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique. postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer exists.

Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a change in the landing reference speed (VREF): Increasing VREF. Lowering VREF. Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS. Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid the use of spoilers.

What margin above the stall speed is provided by the landing reference speed VREF?. 1,30 VSO. 1,05 VSO. 1,10 VSO. VMCA x 1,2.

The approach climb requirement has been established to ensure: minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one engine inoperative. obstacle clearance in the approach area. manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine inoperative. manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear down, all engines operating.

In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and the alternate aerodrome is B, the final reserve fuel for a turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to: 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B. 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B. 15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A. 30 minutes holding 1,500 feeI above aerodrome A.

When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or cancelled in the event of the off-block time being delayed by: 30 minutes or more. 45 minutes or more. 60 minutes or more. 90 minutes or more.

A METAR reads : SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03 QI024 =Which of the following information is contained in this METAR ?. temperature/dewpoint. runway in use. day/month. period of validity.

On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation facility. Without any particular specification on distance, this altitude is valid to: 25 NM. 20 NM. 15 NM. 10 NM.

The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet aeroplane is: 30 min. 45 min. 60 min. Variable with wind velocity.

A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final reserve fuel must allow for : 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation, when no alternate is required. 20 minutes hold over alternate airfield. 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level. 15 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome elevation.

The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine engines is. fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.

Concerning the relation between performance and stress, which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?. A moderate level of stress may improve performance. A student will learn faster and better under severe stress. Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance because he is able to leave this type of stress on the ground. A well trained pilot is able to eleminate any kind of stress completely when he is scheduled to fly.

Gases of physiological importance to man are: oxygen and carbon dioxide. nitrogen and carbon dioxide. oxygen and carbon monoxide. oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor.

The atmosphere contains the following gases: 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases. 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases. 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases. 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases.

An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to: shortness of breath. a decrease of acidity in the blood. a reduction of red blood cells. an improving resistance to hypoxia.

The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I C A O standard atmosphere) is. 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide. 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon. 78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon. 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide.

According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is approximately. - 2 °C every 1000 feet. 10 °C every 100 feet. 2 °C every 1000 metres. constant in the troposphere.

Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ?1. Density2. Pressure3. Temperature4. Humidity. 1,2 ,3. 1, 2 ,4. 2,3 ,4. 3 , 4.

Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is transported by. red blood cells. platelets. blood plasma. white blood cells.

The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are. euphoria and impairment of judgement. hyperventilation. sensation of heat and blurred vision. breathlessness and reduced night vision.

Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by. the hemoglobin in the red blood cells. the blood plasma. attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the red blood plasma. attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the white blood cells.

Hypoxia is caused by. reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung. reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung. an increased number of red blood cells. a higher affinity of the red blood cells (hemoglobin) to oxygen.

Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ?. Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria. Pain in the joints. Low blood pressure. Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest area.

A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation is: cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia. there are great differences between the two. altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft. symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given.

Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?. Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning. A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria. The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning. Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.