Txt2

1. What is the purpose of the IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) Air Cooled Oil Cooler (ACOC)?. a) The IDG ACOC keeps the IDG Oiltemperature at a satisfactory level. b) The IDG ACOC heats the IDG Oiltemperature to prevent freezing. c) The IDG ACOC cools the Engine Oil which is also used for the IDG.

2. During the ENG 1 FIRE TEST (Ovhd Pnl) the SQUIB light in the AGENT 1 pushbutton does not Illuminate, What is the possible cause?. a) The low pressure switch of the fire extinguishing bottle 1 has detected low pressure. b) There is no continuity of one squib of the discharge head of engine 1 fire extinguishing bottle 1. c) The SQUIB lights in the agent discharge pushbuttons are not illuminated during the fire test.

3. Which air source is used for the Engine Anti-Ice protection system?. a) 3rd stage air from the High Pressure Compressor. b) 8th stage air from the Intermediate Pressure Compressor. c) 6th stage air from the High Pressure Compressor.

4. Which source of Bleed Air / Stage is used during take off?. a) The 6th stage of the HP compressor. b) The 6th stage of the IP compressor. c) The 8th stage of the IP compressor.

5. Engine preservation policy should be a flexible program, implemented to provide a maximum of protection to critical engine components as for example…. a) …cowling and doors. b) …covers and plugs. c) …gears, bearing, accessory components.

6. How can you identify an engine surge during ground operation?. a) The EEC will increase the fuel flow to prevent an engine flame out. b) The EGT will decrease cause the increasing cooling airflow around the turbine section. c) The N2/N3 shaft system will not accelerate and a sudden increase in EGT will be monitored.

7. Which components is responsible to give the EEC engine performance data which are necessary for Satisfactory operation of the engine?. a) The DMU (Data Management Unit). b) The Data Entry Plug. c) The FMGEC (Flight Management Guidance Envelope Controller).

8. Before shutdown, it is required to…. a) …supply Pneumatic Power from a source different to the operated engine, to ensure the possibility of an engine motoring in case of a tailpipe fire. b) …switch off all Fuel Pumps to prevent a Tailpipe Fire at shutdown. c) …connect an Electric Ground Power source to supply Electrical Power after shutdown.

9. After installing a Fuel Spray Nozzle, which additional check has to be performed?. a) A fuel leak check has to be performed with the engine in idle. b) A fuel leak check has to be performed with the engine in high power. c) During a wet cranking (motoring), it has to be checked that fuel flow is as show in the AMM.

10. How can you get an access to the intermediate pressure compressor rotor to turn the ip-rotor system?. a) With a special turning tool through the fan blades, fixed inlet guide vanes and the manually opened Variable inlet guide vanes. b) With a special turning tool through the fan blades and fixed inlet guide vanes. c) With a special turning tool through the fan blades, fixed inlet guide vanes and the manually closed Variable inlet guide vanes.

11. What is the function of the accumulator in the EPR system?. a) It decreases the pressure signal to the EEC to an acceptable level. b) It stores the pressure when the engine has stopped. c) It damps out minor pressure fluctuations in the pressure delivery tube to the EEC pressure module.

12. How is the high pressure fuel filter monitored?. a) There is a visual pop out indicator at the filter housing. b) There is differential pressure switch which monitored by the EEC. c) The HP fuel filter is not monitored.

13. What happens if the Fuel Cooled Oil Cooler (FCOC) is clogged at the fuel side?. a) A bypass valve will open. b) A warning message is given by the EEC due to low fuel pressure. c) At first a warning message is given by the EEC and if the differential pressure increased, the bypass valve will open.

14. Which statement concerning the Turbine Overspeed Protection system is true?. a) The EEC does a test of the turbine Overspeed protection function during each ground start and when the test fails, the engine does not start. b) When a LP shaft breakage is detected, the EEC will stop engine operation only in flight, (N1 speed more than 1000 RPM). c) If the EEC logic lanes detect a speed difference between the LP compressor and the LP turbine is a specified time limit, the engine is immediately shut down.

15. What happens if the Engine P20 is not available?. a) The Engine FADEC is switching over automatically to the rated N1 mode. b) The Engine Fadec is switching over automatically to the unrated N1 mode. c) Only manually switching to N1 mode is possible.

16. How are the different power supply sources tested during an CMS Ignition Test?. a) One after the other supply bus is automatically selected by the EEC during the test. b) The different supply sources have to be selected manually by a line select key with the EEC test menu. c) It is not necessary to test each supply source individually.

17. Which fact(s) cause(s) the Turbine Case Cooling (TCC) Valve to close?. a) Loss of N3 information. b) Loss of the Overspeed protection. c) Loss of electrical power or HP3 servo air pressure.

18. What is the position of the IP/HP handling bleed valves after engine shut down?. a) The handling bleed valves are spring loaded open. b) The handling bleed valves are spring loaded closed. c) The handling bleed valves stays in last position.

19. What kind of adjustments can be carried out inside the Artificial Feel Unit?. a) Detent and Resolver adjustments. b) Friction and Resolver adjustments. c) Detent and friction adjustments.

20. The Thrust Lever artificial feel is provided by…. a) …a non adjustable rocker arm spring rod mechanism assembly. b) …an adjustable friction system and rocker arm with cam gear mechanism. c) …an electronic friction control unit.

21. Where is the Flex Takeoff Temperature (FLX) indicated when using derated thrust setting. a) It is indicated on the Engine System Page (SD) only. b) It is indicated on the Engine Warning Display (EWD), adjacent to the Thrust Limit Mode, and on the MCDU PERF Page. c) It is indicated on the EWD, adjacent to the Thrust Limit Mode only.

22. To which parameter does the flight crew control the engine in reverse thrust?. a) To Command EPR. b) To N1 speed. c) To N3 speed.

23. Which units are mainly involved to control the independent locking system at the RB211 Trent700 Engine?. a) Thrust lever, Resolver, FMGEC, Tertiary Locks. b) Reverse Lever, Potis, FCPC´s, Tertiary Locks. c) Reverse Lever, Resolvers, EIVMU, Primary Locks.

24. How is it possible to inhibit the thrust reverser for maintenance?. a) It is possible by turning the inhibit lever at the Direction Unit to the inhibit position. The proximity sensor target is near. b) For maintenance it is not necessary to inhibit the thrust reverser cause there is no engine running signal available. c) It is possible by turning the inhibit lever at the Isolation Control Unit to the inhibit position.

25. What happens with the scavenged oil from the centrifugal breather?. a) It is routed directly to the Fuel/Oil Heatexchanger. b) It is routed to the Oiltank. c) It is separated via the Draintank.

26. How is vent air released from the airoil mist?. a) By the centrifugal breather. b) By use of a de-aerator fitted inside of the tank. c) By an air vent valve on top of the scavenge pump.

27. Which air is used to pressurize the engine oil tank?. a) It is pressurized by the air included in the scavenge oil. b) It is pressurized by the 4th air included in the lube oil. c) It is pressurized by the 5th air supply line.

28. When is the automatic re-light function initiated?. a) The EEC will detect flame out conditions by low combustion chamber pressure and a change in HP shaft speed and will select continuous ignition. b) The EEC will detect low temperature (T25) indicating flame out will select continuous ignition. c) The EEC will recognize low EGT and will select continuous ignition for 10 seconds.