UNIDAD DOS DEL MIERDAS DEL PUTILLAS

1) ________ is defined as the processes that account for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal. A) Leadership. B) Management. C) Learning. D) Emotional labor. E) Motivation.

2) The ________ dimension of motivation measures how long a person can maintain effort. A) direction. B) persistence. C) intensity. D) knowledge. E) experience.

3) The ________ element of motivation describes how hard a person tries. A) intelligence. B) experience. C) direction. D) intensity. E) persistence.

4) Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one's hunger, thirst, and other bodily needs?. A) safety. B) physiological. C) social. D) esteem. E) psychological.

5) Which of the following needs would most likely motivate Joanna?. A) social. B) esteem. C) physiological. D) self-actualization. E) safety.

6) Which of the following needs would most likely motivate Josephine?. A) social. B) esteem. C) physiological. D) self-actualization. E) safety.

7) Which of the following needs would motivate Jonathan the most?. A) social. B) esteem. C) physiological. D) self-actualization. E) safety.

8) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is a lower-order need?. A) social. B) safety. C) esteem. D) self-actualization. E) recognition.

9) If we consider Maslow's hierarchy of needs in the context of Japan, Greece, and Mexico, where uncertainty-avoidance characteristics are strong then ________ needs would be on top of the hierarchy. A) self actualization. B) security. C) social. D) esteem. E) growth.

10) Which of the following needs in Maslow's hierarchy refers to the drive to become what one is capable of becoming?. A) social. B) self-actualization. C) physiological. D) esteem. E) safety.

11) Why is Maslow's theory criticized?. A) The concept of self-actualization was unfounded. B) There is little evidence that needs are structured or operate in the way it describes. C) The esteem need is a more powerful motivator than self-actualization. D) Its terminology tends to alienate those to whom it is applied. E) It does not adequately describe how an organization can satisfy higher-order needs.

12) According to Douglas McGregor's Theory Y, a manager assumes that employees ________. A) need to be directed. B) prefer to be controlled. C) learn to accept responsibility. D) need to be micromanaged. E) attempt to avoid work.

13) If Alberta is a categorized as a Theory X manager, which of the following behaviors is she most likely to exhibit?. A) She will empower her subordinates. B) She will trust her employees to use their discretion in most matters. C) She will strictly control all the details of any project she is managing. D) She will delegate authority extensively to junior managers. E) She will let her employees choose their own goals.

14) The ________ theory is also called motivation-hygiene theory. A) hierarchy of needs. B) goal-setting. C) self-determination. D) cognitive evaluation. E) two-factor.

15) Which of the following theories proposes the idea of a dual continuum?. A) Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory. B) self-determination theory. C) two-factor theory. D) cognitive evaluation theory. E) McClelland's theory of needs.

16) According to the two-factor theory, ________. A) there exists a hierarchy of needs within every human being, and as each need is satisfied, the nextone becomes dominant. B) most employees inherently dislike work and must therefore be directed or even coerced into performing it. C) employees view work as being as natural as rest or play, and therefore learn to accept, and even seek, responsibility. D) the aspects that lead to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction. E) achievement, power, and affiliation are three important needs that help explain motivation.

17) Which of the following is a motivational factor, according to Herzberg's two-factor theory?. A) quality of supervision. B) recognition. C) pay. D) relationships with others. E) company policies.

18) According to the two-factor theory proposed by Herzberg, which of the following is considered a hygiene factor?. A) promotional opportunities. B) quality of supervision. C) achievement. D) recognition. E) responsibility.

19) According to Herzberg, when ________ are adequate, people won't be dissatisfied, but they will also not be satisfied. A) achievement needs. B) affiliation needs. C) motivational factors. D) power needs. E) hygiene factors.

20) McClelland's theory is based on which of the following needs?. A) stability, growth, and security. B) achievement, power, and affiliation. C) self-actualization, stability, and safety. D) hygiene, control, and security. E) control, status, and self-actualization.

21) Which of these five employees is most likely to be suitable for a new assignment that involves a high degree of personal responsibility and feedback?. A) Joe. B) Mary. C) Tim. D) Sarah. E) Doug.

22) Which of these five employees is most suitable for handling your responsibilities when you are on a vacation?. A) Joe. B) Mary. C) Tim. D) Sarah. E) Doug.

23) Erika wants to become the head of the HR department. Although the role comes with a generous salary hike and will put her in charge of several subordinates, she is mainly pursuing this position because she believes she can do the job better than anyone else and wants people to know this. According to McClelland's theory of needs, which of the following needs is Erika primarily driven by in this case?. A) the need for stability. B) the need for achievement. C) the need for security. D) the need for affiliation. E) the need for power.

24) Which of the following statements is true according to McClelland's theory of needs ?. A) People with a high achievement need prefer tasks that have a high level of risk. B) People with a high achievement need are interested in motivating others to do well. C) People with a high need for power and affiliation often make good managers in large firms. D) People with a high achievement need experience great satisfaction from success that comes by luck. E) People with a high need for power and a low need for affiliation often make the best managers.

25) Which of following needs, as detailed by Maslow's hierarchy of needs, best corresponds to McClelland's need for affiliation?. A) safety. B) social. C) esteem. D) self-actualization. E) physiological.

26) Which of the following theories proposes that people prefer to feel they have control over their actions, so anything that makes a previously enjoyed task feel more like an obligation than a freely chosen activity will undermine motivation?. A) self-serving theory. B) motivation-hygiene theory. C) two-factor theory. D) self-determination theory. E) goal setting theory.

27) Which of the following statements is true regarding the cognitive evaluation theory?. A) People need extrinsic rewards in order to be motivated. B) Extrinsic rewards tend to reduce intrinsic interest in a task. C) Intrinsic rewards are almost as effective as extrinsic rewards. D) Externally imposed standards of work largely improve intrinsic motivation. E) Extrinsic rewards, including verbal praise, significantly decrease intrinsic motivation.

28) Self-determination theory proposes that in addition to being driven by a need for autonomy, people seek ways to achieve ________. A) competence and positive connections. B) high rewards. C) recognition and status. D) career growth. E) power and control.

29) Rachel's parents used to pay her an allowance every week to feed the cats and to do a few other chores around the house. However, once her mother lost her job, her parents stopped giving her an allowance. Although Rachel quit making her bed every morning, she still continued to feed the cats. Which of the following best explains why Rachel continues to feed the cats?. A) Without the extrinsic reward, the task itself is eliminated. B) With the extrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on internal motivation. C) Without the intrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on external motivation. D) Without the extrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on internal motivation. E) With the intrinsic reward, the execution of the task relies on external motivation.

30) The concept of ________ considers how strongly peoples' reasons for pursuing goals are consistent with their interests and core values. A) self-serving bias. B) self-fulfilling prophecy. C) self-concordance. D) self-actualization. E) self-efficacy.

31) The investment of an employee's physical, cognitive, and emotional energies into job performance is called ________. A) vicarious modeling. B) self-determination. C) job engagement. D) management by objectives. E) job analysis.

32) Which of the following statements is true regarding goal-setting theory?. A) Goal commitment is more likely when individuals have an external locus of control. B) Externally generated feedback is more powerful than self-generated feedback. C) Generalized goals produce a higher level of output as compared to specific goals. D) People do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals. E) Assigned goals generate greater goal commitment in low rather than high power-distance cultures.

33) According to goal-setting theory, goals are more likely to have a stronger impact on performance when ________. A) goals have long time frames for completion. B) tasks are complex rather than simple. C) tasks are novel rather than well learned. D) goals are easy rather than difficult. E) tasks are independent rather than interdependent.

34) MBO emphasizes goals that are ________. A) tangible, verifiable, and measurable. B) achievable, controllable, and profitable. C) inspirational, verifiable, and creative. D) tangible, rewarding, and assigned. E) profitable, attainable, and self-set.

35) MBO provides individual employees with ________. A) personal performance objectives. B) greater work supervision. C) predefined targets. D) generalized feedback. E) clear-cut growth paths.

36) Unlike in the case of goal-setting theory, MBO strongly advocates ________. A) self-generated feedback. B) explicit time periods. C) participatively set goals. D) independent tasks. E) specific performance objectives.

37) The ________ theory is also known as the social cognitive theory or the social learning theory. A) two-factor. B) self-determination. C) goal-setting. D) self-efficacy. E) reinforcement.

38) ________ refers to an individual's belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. A) Emotional contagion. B) Affect intensity. C) Self-efficacy. D) Self-determination. E) Reinforcement.

39) According to Albert Bandura, the most important source of increasing self-efficacy is ________. A) arousal. B) vicarious modeling. C) verbal persuasion. D) enactive mastery. E) cognitive learning.

40) Which of the following sources of increasing self-efficacy involves gaining relevant experience with a particular task or job?. A) verbal persuasion. B) enactive mastery. C) vicarious modeling. D) arousal. E) cognitive learning.

41) One of the sources of self-efficacy is ________, becoming more confident because you see someone else doing the task. A) arousal. B) enactive mastery. C) visualization. D) vicarious modeling. E) verbal persuasion.

42) With reference to the four sources of self-efficacy as proposed by Albert Bandura, verbal persuasion involves becoming more confident ________. A) because you have gained relevant experience with the particular task or job. B) because you see someone else doing the particular task or job. C) because someone convinces you that you have the skills necessary to be successful. D) because you are rewarded for performing a similar task well. E) because you get energized or "psyched up" to perform the particular task or job.

43) Which of the following ways of increasing self-efficacy is generally used by motivational speakers?. A) arousal. B) enactive mastery. C) focused training. D) vicarious modeling. E) verbal persuasion.

44) The Pygmalion effect is also called the ________ effect. A) halo. B) self-concordance. C) Galatea. D) self-determination. E) pseudocertainty.

45) The best way for a manager to use verbal persuasion is through the ________, a form of self-fulfilling prophecy in which believing something can make it true. A) confirmation bias. B) Pygmalion effect. C) anchoring bias. D) framing effect. E) Electra complex.

46) A(n) ________ is any consequence, immediately following a response, that increases the probability that the behavior will be repeated. A) conclusion. B) reinforcer. C) goal. D) objective. E) referent.

47) The proponents of reinforcement theory view behavior as ________. A) the result of a cognitive process. B) environmentally caused. C) a reflection of the inner state of the individual. D) a function of one's power need. E) a product of heredity.

48) ________ argues that people learn to behave to get something they want or to avoid something they don't want. A) Theory Y. B) Theory X. C) Social cognitive theory. D) Operant conditioning theory. E) McClelland's theory of needs.

49) To get the best results while using reinforcement theory, rewards should be ________. A) small and given only once. B) large and given at irregular intervals. C) given prior to the desired behavior response. D) given immediately following the desired behavior. E) presented publicly with a large number of witnesses.

50) Helen, a high school teacher, wants her students to actively participate more in class. She has decided to use reinforcement theory to get the required results. Which of the following methods is she most likely to use?. A) She is going to call on students who never participate. B) She is going to yell at students, telling them that they are not making good grades. C) She is going to ask the students that always participate to allow the others to have a chance. D) She is going to model what active participation should look like, at the beginning of class. E) She is going to give students an extra mark each time that they contribute.

51) The concept of operant conditioning is a part of the broader concept of ________, which argues that behavior follows stimuli in a relatively unthinking manner. A) equity theory. B) expectancy theory. C) cognitive behavioral therapy. D) behaviorism. E) humanism.

52) What is the limitation of reinforcement theory in explaining changes in behavior?. A) It does not adequately describe the original behavior. B) It lays too much emphasis on feelings and attitudes. C) Most behavior is, in fact, environmentally caused. D) It ignores the effect of rewards and punishments on behavior. E) It does not recognize the effect of cognitive variables.

53) According to social learning theory, which of the following processes demonstrates whether an individual is capable of performing the modeled activities?. A) attentional process. B) retention process. C) motor reproduction process. D) reinforcement process. E) motivation process.

54) George is trying to teach his two-year old son to gently caress their cat. George softly strokes the animal and every time his son does the same, he rewards him with kind words like "good job!" The child is very attentive during the process and claps his hands when his father praises him. However, as soon as George leaves, the boy lunges for the cat and grabs it by the tail. Which process of social-learning theory is failing?. A) attentional processes. B) justification processes. C) retention processes. D) motor reproduction processes. E) reinforcement processes.

55) In equity theory, individuals assess the ________. A) cost-benefit ratio. B) efficiency-effectiveness trade-off. C) quantity-quality trade-off. D) outcome-input ratio. E) quality of outcome.

56) Karen graduated from college four years ago and has been working at Betaphy Inc. ever since. She has consistently received good performance evaluations for the quality of her work. She recently found out that her company hired a fresh college graduate with no experience at a salary higher than hers. Which of the following theories will Karen most likely use to evaluate this situation?. A) reinforcement. B) goal setting. C) equity. D) expectancy. E) operant conditioning.

57) According to the equity theory, there are four referent comparisons. The referent comparison known as other-inside refers to ________. A) an employee's experiences in a different position inside the employee's current organization. B) an employee's experiences in a different position outside the employee's current organization. C) another individual or group of individuals inside the employee's organization. D) an employee's experiences in a similar position outside the employee's current organization. E) another individual or group of individuals outside the employee's organization.

58) Self-inside, one of the four referent comparisons in the equity theory, refers to ________. A) an employee's experiences in a different position inside the employee's current organization. B) an employee's experiences in a different position outside the employee's current organization. C) another individual or group of individuals inside the employee's organization. D) an employee's experiences in a similar position outside the employee's current organization. E) another individual or group of individuals outside the employee's organization.

59) Other-outside is a referent comparison that refers to ________. A) an employee's experiences in a similar position outside the employee's current organization. B) another individual or group of individuals inside the employee's organization. C) an employee's experiences in a different position inside the employee's current organization. D) another individual or group of individuals outside the employee's organization. E) an employee's experiences in a different position outside the employee's current organization.

60) Jim is a salaried employee whose job is to develop content for online web sites. He discovers that he is paid substantially more than his colleagues, even though their jobs and levels of performance are very similar. According to the equity theory, what impact is this discovery most likely to have on his behavior and performance?. A) He will reduce the amount of work that he does on a daily basis. B) He will compare his earnings to those of another group of employees. C) He will increase his productivity and/or the overall quality of his work. D) He will seek a position within the company commensurate with his pay. E) He will begin to look for a position outside of the company.

61) Following this discovery, Megan starts coming to work late and her productivity begins to suffer. Which of the following is most similar to the scenario mentioned above?. A) Dawn starts coming to work early and stays late once she learns that the mid-term review is around the corner. B) Greg believes he works harder than any of the other members in his department as they often leave the office before him. C) Lisa starts working longer hours after learning that her co-workers earn less than she does for the same work. D) Myrtle produces a higher number of units to compensate for the lower quality of her output. E) Beth submits her resignation after she was passed over for promotion for the second time.

62) Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument that Megan is trying to gain a sense of equity by distorting her perception of herself?. A) She thinks that her colleague is paid more because she is an Ivy League graduate. B) She believes that she is less-capable than her colleague. C) She assumes that her colleague received a higher package due to changes in industry standards. D) She believes that her salary is not commensurate with her skills and experience. E) She believes that she is doing a lot better career-wise compared to the people with whom she graduated.

63) Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument that Megan is trying to gain a sense of equity by changing her inputs?. A) She asks her boss for a raise, citing her years of experience with the company. B) She claims that extrinsic rewards make work seem like a chore and less enjoyable. C) She accepts additional responsibilities but fails to carry them out effectively. D) She takes long breaks from work and shirks her responsibilities. E) She constantly interrupts her colleague, refusing to let her get any work done.

64) Jackie thinks that she is paid a lot less than other employees in her division and feels extremely resentful. She starts taking long breaks and generally wastes time. Her actions resulted from a perceived lack of ________ justice. A) interactional. B) interpersonal. C) procedural. D) distributive. E) associative.

65) Edith believes that the methods for determining salary hikes and bonuses in her company are extremely unfair. In this case, Edith perceives a lack of ________ justice. A) interpersonal. B) distributive. C) associative. D) procedural. E) interactional.

66) Which of the following types of justice relates most strongly to job satisfaction, employee trust, withdrawal from the organization, job performance, and citizenship behaviors?. A) associative justice. B) interactional justice. C) distributive justice. D) procedural justice. E) integrative justice.

67) Why do people who perceive themselves as victims of interactional injustice often blame their immediate supervisor rather than the organization at large?. A) Interactional justice or injustice is intimately tied to the conveyer of the information. B) Interactional injustice usually occurs during face-to-face encounters. C) When people are not treated with respect they tend to retaliate against those closest at hand. D) Interactional injustice is in the eyes of those who perceive they are disrespected. E) Interactional injustice is most often the result of the impersonal policies of the organization.

68) Which of the following theories discusses three relationships: effort-performance relationship, performance-reward relationship, and rewards-personal goals relationship?. A) goal-setting theory. B) self-efficacy theory. C) equity theory. D) expectancy theory. E) self-determination theory.

69) Logan is an employee who processes health insurance forms. Initially he was criticized by his supervisor for sloppy work, but thereafter he improved considerably. Now he consistently processes his forms without errors and even does more than his fair share of work. However, Logan's supervisor has not responded to the extra effort he has put in, giving him no praise or monetary benefits. This leads Logan to believe that his supervisor is biased against him. According to the expectancy theory, in this situation, there is a problem in the ________ relationship. A) rewards-personal goals. B) performance-awareness. C) performance-reward. D) performance-objectives. E) performance-achievement.

70) Oscar is looking for a new job. He used to be the company's top sales representative and was eagerly expecting to be promoted. However, one of the regional manager's friends was promoted to district manager instead. According to the expectancy theory, Oscar's dissatisfaction with his current job stems from a breakdown in the ________ relationship. A) performance-reward. B) effort-performance. C) reward-personal goal. D) satisfaction-effort. E) personal goal-self actualization.

71) According to the expectancy theory, the performance-reward relationship is the degree to which ________. A) the individual believes performing at a particular level will lead to desired outcomes. B) organizational rewards satisfy an individual's personal goals or needs. C) organizational rewards are perceived as attractive by the individual. D) the individual believes that exerting a given amount of effort will lead to performance. E) organization rewards correspond with the individual's level of effort.

72) Mark is an excellent technical writer. He has never missed a deadline and all his projects are of superior quality. He now wants to telecommute two days a week, so that he can spend more time with his family. He feels that he has proven his reliability. However, his boss is unable to comply with his request and gives him a substantial raise instead. According to the expectancy theory, Mark's disappointment demonstrates a breakdown in the ________ relationship. A) performance-reward. B) effort-performance. C) rewards-personal goals. D) effort-satisfaction. E) performance-achievement.

73) With reference to the expectancy theory, which of the following examples indicates a weak rewards- personal goals relationship?. A) An employee lacks the skills required to reach the desired performance level. B) An organization's appraisal system assesses nonperformance factors such as creativity and initiative. C) An organization rewards its employees based on factors such as seniority and skill level. D) An employee believes that his manager does not like him and hence expects a poor appraisal. E) An employee works hard in order to be relocated to the Paris office but instead is transferred to Beijing.

74) If a manager incorrectly assumes that all employees want the same thing, then according to the expectancy theory, it is most likely to result in a weak ________ relationship. A) performance-achievement. B) effort-performance. C) performance-reward. D) rewards-personal goals. E) effort-satisfaction.

1) ________ is an extrinsic means of motivation. A) Recognition. B) Autonomy. C) Responsibility. D) Flexibility. E) Salary.

2) Job design is defined as the ________. A) degree to which the job rewards competence. B) way the elements in a job are organized. C) degree to which the job contributes to profit margins. D) degree of decision-making power with the immediate superiors. E) way the job is evaluated in terms of its relative worth to other jobs.

3) With reference to the job characteristics model, which of the following defines skill variety?. A) the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. B) the degree to which work activities generate direct and clear information about performance. C) the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling and procedure. D) the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people. E) the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities tapping different abilities.

4) With reference to the job characteristics model, which of the following defines task identity?. A) the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. B) the degree to which work activities generate direct and clear information about performance. C) the degree to which a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling and procedure. D) the degree to which a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people. E) the degree to which a job requires a variety of different activities.

5) Adam Sears is an assembly line employee with Swenson Motors. Though Adam is popular among his supervisors and colleagues, Adam experiences low morale and lack of motivation. He feels frustrated that his job is restricted to fixing nuts and bolts on the car parts. He fears that he has no chances of advancing in his career as he cannot completely assemble a car. Which of the following is true with regard to Adam?. A) Adam's job has high task complexity. B) Adam's job has a high span of control. C) Adam's job has low role definition. D) Adam's job has low task identity. E) Adam's job has high task significance.

6) According to the job characteristics model, task significance is the degree to which ________. A) a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. B) a job generates direct and clear information about performance. C) a job provides the worker freedom in scheduling work and determining its procedure. D) a job bears an impact on the lives or work of other people. E) a job requires a variety of different activities.

7) Samantha Barnes is an emergency medical technician. Recently, during an emergency call, she was able to resuscitate a man who had a cardiac arrest. Subsequently, she spent some time calming the 12- year-old daughter of the patient and looked after her till the rest of the patient's family arrived at the hospital. Based on this description, it can be concluded that Samantha's job is high in ________. A) task identity. B) feedback. C) extrinsic rewards. D) task significance. E) job rotation.

8) According to the job characteristics model, autonomy is defined as the degree to which ________. A) a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. B) a job generates direct and clear information about performance. C) a job provides the worker freedom, independence, and discretion. D) a job has an impact on the lives or work of other people. E) a job requires a variety of different activities.

9) According to the job characteristics model, ________ indicates the degree to which carrying out work activities generates direct and clear information about your own performance. A) task significance. B) autonomy. C) feedback. D) task identity. E) skill variety.

10) Which of the following series of dimensions of the job characteristics model (JCM) combine to create meaningful work?. A) autonomy, task identity, and feedback. B) skill variety, autonomy, and task significance. C) skill variety, autonomy, and feedback. D) feedback, task identity, and task significance. E) skill variety, task identity, and task significance.

11) The core dimensions of the job characteristics model can be combined into a single predictive index called ________. A) extrinsic motivation score. B) personal outcome score. C) job diagnostic score. D) motivating potential score. E) potential development score.

12) Which of the following statements is true of the job characteristics model?. A) The operation of the model is universal and unaffected by cultural factors. B) The operation of the model is relatively individualistic in nature. C) The operation of the model requires employees to have similar skill sets. D) The operation of the model cannot be quantitatively measured. E) The operation of the model fulfils only extrinsic motivational needs.

13) Which of the following statements is true regarding job rotation?. A) It decreases the flexibility with which an organization can adapt to a change. B) It decreases employee motivation. C) It decreases productivity in the short-run. D) It decreases supervisory workload. E) It decreases the flexibility in scheduling work.

14) The periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level is defined as ________. A) job enlargement. B) job analysis. C) job rotation. D) job sharing. E) job enrichment.

15) A prerequisite condition for job rotation is the ________. A) presence of high level of autonomy among workers. B) presence of high need for affiliation among workers. C) presence of employees with similar skill sets and requirements. D) presence of alternative work arrangements for employees to avail. E) presence of employee involvement programs.

16) Managers at Flavors, a restaurant chain, train their employees such that in the absence of employees, someone trained in the same skills can step in and do the job equally well. Thus, many modules in training are extensive as they provide employees with details of the skill sets required for different jobs. In practice, this lengthy training program does help the company as a well-trained and flexible workforce is at their disposal at all times. The managers at Flavors use ________. A) job rotation. B) vertical enhancement. C) telecommuting. D) job sharing. E) flextime.

17) Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument of adopting job rotation?. A) The employees of the company have similar skill sets which are suited to transfer of learning. B) The company has been conducting professional training programs to keep all employees up-to-date with the developments in the field. C) AmWeb, one of the major rival firms, witnessed a substantial rise in profits following its cross- training program for employees. D) The research evidence favoring job rotation has rarely used samples from the service industry. E) The company is now entering its busiest business season with multiple project deadlines.

18) Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument in favor of adopting job rotation?. A) The company is currently facing numerous budget constraints. B) The company can enhance productivity of existing employees in various areas for different projects. C) Two front-level managers have resigned in the last quarter as they were not promoted. D) The company has launched a new brand which is cannibalizing one of its existing products. E) The company has recently given employees new responsibilities by combining their routine tasks into natural work units.

19) One of the methods of job enrichment is to expand jobs vertically. This method involves modifying the ________ dimension of the job. A) task significance. B) autonomy. C) feedback. D) task identity. E) skill variety.

20) Job enrichment is the process of ________. A) periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level. B) expansion of jobs by increasing the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of the work. C) redistribution of power within the organization through work councils and board representations. D) distribution of a significant degree of power between subordinates and supervisors. E) evaluation of an employee wherein subordinates, peers, and managers provide comprehensive feedback.

21) The job characteristics model describes five dimensions of a job. A job can be enriched by modifying one or more of these five dimensions. Which of the following methods of job enrichment involves modifying skill variety and task identity dimensions of a job?. A) combining tasks. B) forming natural work units. C) establishing client relationships. D) expanding jobs vertically. E) opening feedback channels.

22) Beyond redesigning the nature of the work itself and involving employees in decisions, another approach to making the work environment more motivating is to alter work arrangements to meet employee needs. Which of the following is designed to give an employee greater control of their schedule?. A) flextime. B) gainsharing. C) job rotation. D) job enlargement. E) job enrichment.

23) Employees who use the flextime option have to ________. A) work from the office for three days of the week. B) work from home on a relatively permanent basis. C) work from the office based on a schedule fixed with the compatible partner they function with. D) work from the office during the common core period and put in the extra hours as per their convenience. E) work from home only two days a week.

24) An arrangement that allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job is called ________. A) flextime. B) job sharing. C) gainsharing. D) telecommuting. E) job rotation.

25) Janice and Shane are both senior software analysts. They have worked together on projects for six years and get along very well. Janice is anticipating the arrival of her first child and will not be able to work on a full-time basis in the future. Shane is also contemplating opening his own business as a home media installation consultant and does not want to continue to work full time. They both need some income. Which of the following alternative job structures would be best for Janice and Shane?. A) job enlargement. B) telecommuting. C) job rotation. D) job sharing. E) job enrichment.

26) Which of the following statements is true regarding job sharing?. A) It expands jobs by increasing the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of the work. B) It is also called cross-training. C) It allows two or more individuals to split a traditional 40-hour-a-week job. D) It involves periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another with similar skill requirements at the same organizational level. E) Job sharing is a method of job enrichment.

27) Which of the following alternative work arrangements enables the organization to draw on the talents of more than one individual in a given job?. A) telecommuting. B) flextime. C) gainsharing. D) profit-sharing. E) job sharing.

28) Which of the following is the major drawback of job sharing from management's perspective?. A) increase in supervisory workload. B) increased costs for providing supporting infrastructure (such as desk and computer) to two employees instead of one. C) difficulty in finding compatible partners. D) difficulty in designing the reward structure. E) difficulty in coordinating schedules.

29) After the training and development manager at Add Worth, Nicole Hayes, resigned, the CEO has made it a priority that the position be filled soon by someone of equal expertise and experience as Nicole. To locate the right candidate, Jennifer Ray, the HR manager, has been contacting recruitment firms, checking job sites, and pushing for referrals from the employees. However, she has only found candidates with little or no experience in the field who were willing to work full time for the position. At the next meeting with the CEO, Jennifer proposes an alternative strategy; she suggests hiring two experienced candidates who are open to the idea of handling the training needs on a part-time basis as a team. The CEO listens to her proposal but is not too convinced by it. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen Jennifer's proposal to use work sharing for the vacant position?. A) Trainers are exempted from the requirement of being at the office throughout the common core period of the workday. B) The employees of the company on the work council have planned to demand the flextime option. C) A good proportion of the company's prized workforce comprises employees from the baby boomer generation who are set to retire in the impending future. D) The headhunting firms that Jennifer contacted are usually helpful in generating a good pool of potential candidates. E) A rival firm recently adopted telecommuting to reduce administrative costs cutting into its bottom line.

30) The option of working at home at least 2 days a week on a computer linked to the employer's office is termed as ________. A) work sharing. B) social loafing. C) offshoring. D) telecommuting. E) homeshoring.

31) Amanda McPherson is a working mother with one child and an ailing parent to look after in addition to her duties as a wife and job responsibilities as a legal consultant. Since Amanda always felt pressed for time, the news that the consultancy she worked for would allow her to work from home two days a week came as a great relief to her. She now feels more motivated to work for the company as the company has taken into account her personal and professional needs. The company has allowed Amanda to use the option of ________. A) gainsharing. B) offshoring. C) telecommuting. D) homeshoring. E) work sharing.

32) An MNC in a developing country is operating amidst severe space constraints, and the infrastructural conditions in the city are bad, causing a lot of lost man-hours. Anticipating rapid growth in the months to come, the company has created a recruitment plan based on its revenue expectations. However, it wants to manage this expansion without undertaking an expensive physical expansion. Which of the following could be a solution for the company?. A) profit-sharing. B) groupshifting. C) telecommuting. D) gainsharing. E) codetermining.

33) For management, the major downside of telecommuting is ________. A) decreased productivity. B) increased turnover. C) reduced morale. D) difficulty in scheduling work. E) less direct supervision of employees.

34) Telecommuting is an option that suits professionals like ________. A) trainers. B) nurses. C) analysts. D) receptionists. E) sales representatives.

35) Which of the following factors represents the influence of social aspects of the work environment on motivation?. A) task identity. B) autonomy. C) feedback. D) interdependence. E) skill variety.

36) The job characteristic model fails to consider the role ________ plays in employee motivation. A) job design. B) meaningfulness. C) social support. D) growth need. E) responsibility.

37) ________ is a participative process that uses employees' input to increase their commitment to the organization's success. A) Job enrichment. B) Employee involvement. C) Vertical integration. D) Groupshifting. E) Job sharing.

38) To be effective, an employee involvement program must ________. A) rightsize the company by eliminating obsolete positions. B) incorporate the unique demands of different cultures. C) mandatorily establish work councils in the company. D) eliminate the influence of employees in managerial decision making. E) implement autocratic ways of handling its employees.

39) Which of the following is the distinct characteristic of participative management programs?. A) joint decision making. B) representative participation. C) performance norms. D) establishment of work councils. E) autocratic decision making.

40) Participative management is a method of management where ________. A) representatives of workers form work councils and these councils must be consulted when management makes decisions about employees. B) few representatives of workers sit on a company's board of directors. C) subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors. D) low-level workers meet occasionally with the CEO to discuss problems within their department. E) low-level workers are responsible for making corporate policy decisions.

41) The two major forms of employee involvement are participative management and ________. A) organizational restructuring. B) job sharing. C) representative participation. D) job rotation. E) job enlargement.

42) Representative participation is characterized by ________. A) joint decision making by employees and management. B) democratic leadership behaviors. C) open and honest two-way communication. D) a significant positive impact on employee morale and performance. E) compliance with the legal need to redistribute power within organizations.

43) The two most common forms of representative participation are ________ and board representatives. A) quality circles. B) work councils. C) employee unions. D) task teams. E) cross-functional teams.

44) The main drawback of representative participation as an employee involvement measure is that ________. A) it is a time-consuming process. B) it is able to exert its impact only in the short run. C) it is primarily symbolic in its impact. D) it is consistent with the Theory Y view of motivation. E) it is likely to require a major change in organizational roles.

45) Woodworth & Baines is a retail chain that has taken up numerous measures to improve employee attitude, motivation, and organizational performance. New training programs, employee engagement initiatives, and an employee welfare council were the three main strategies implemented as part of the employee empowerment program. Norman Kilner was one of twenty employees nominated to the employee welfare council where they were required to interact with the management to promote the interests of the employees. Additionally, the job roles of these twenty employees were vertically enhanced to give them more autonomy in the organization. However, six months into the employee empowerment program, a survey by HR revealed no actual change in employee attitudes. Similarly, a survey conducted by the production manager revealed that work productivity had not increased by any substantial measure either. Which of the following, if true, would best explain this outcome?. A) Management strengthened the regulations relating to employee absenteeism in this period. B) Management retained the degree of control they had in the organizational affairs. C) The company moved from a merit-based to a piece-rate pay system in the last quarters. D) The employees performed poorly because of the lack of training and development programs. E) Management implemented a 360-degree feedback system for performance appraisals.

46) Which of the following is Theory X consistent with?. A) the autocratic style of managing people. B) the principles of participative management. C) the vertical enhancement of jobs to enhance autonomy. D) the use of recognition and achievements to motivate employees. E) the reduced need of supervision and direction from managers.

47) Internal equity refers to the ________. A) list of the knowledge, skills, and abilities required in a particular job. B) arrangement of the elements of different jobs in the organization. C) worth of the job to the organization. D) organization's pay relative to pay elsewhere in its industry. E) framework of tasks, duties, and responsibilities that the job involves.

48) The external competitiveness of an organization's pay relative to elsewhere in the industry is measured by its ________. A) external benefit. B) external rotation. C) external costs. D) external equity. E) external liability.

49) ________ bases a portion of an employee's pay on some individual and/or organizational measure of performance. A) Guaranteed pay program. B) Variable-pay program. C) Flexible benefits program. D) Modular plans program. E) Base pay program.

50) The ________ pay plan has long been popular as a means of compensating production workers by paying a fixed sum for each unit of production completed. A) competency-based. B) gainsharing. C) piece-rate. D) profit sharing. E) merit-based.

51) Which of the following is an example of a piece-rate plan?. A) $20 for each hour of work. B) $2 for each unit produced. C) stock options at cheaper prices. D) straight commission plan. E) spot bonuses.

52) Which of the following statements is true regarding a merit-based pay plan?. A) It bases pay levels on how many skills employees have or how many jobs they can do. B) It is also called competency-based pay plan. C) Unions typically resist merit-based pay plan. D) It distributes compensation based on an established formula designed around a company's profitability. E) A typical merit-based pay plan provides no base salary and pays the employee only for what he or she produces.

53) A ________ pay plan pays for individual performance based on performance appraisal ratings. A) piece-rate. B) merit-based. C) employee stock ownership. D) profit sharing. E) gainsharing.

54) Daichi Inc. is a Japanese software development firm known for its high quality products. Recently, the company held its annual conference and awarded all those employees who were in the top five percent with substantial monetary rewards. Their performance was evaluated on the basis of target achievement, client feedback, and quality ratings. Employees whose performance had not changed drastically were given a minor raise and those who faired badly received no incentives. Many employees blamed the company of creating differences among employees because they felt that it would harm the company in the long run, but Daichi Inc. truly believes that to retain and motivate its best performers, a large incentive is a good step. Daichi Inc. is using a(n) ________ here. A) piece-rate plan. B) employee stock ownership plan. C) modular plan. D) merit-based plan. E) flexible benefits plan.

55) Which of the following represents a pay plan that rewards employees for recent performance rather than historical performance?. A) bonus. B) flexible benefits. C) modular plans. D) cafeteria plans. E) base salary.

56) What is an advantage of bonuses over merit-based pay plan?. A) Employees don't view bonuses as a part of their salary. B) Bonuses improve flexibility of the workforce. C) Bonuses are paid based on a formula. D) Bonuses improve performance of the group as a whole. E) Employees are rewarded for recent performance.

57) In which of the following variable-pay programs is the pay level based on how many skills employees have or how many jobs they can do?. A) bonuses. B) piece-rate pay. C) skill-based pay. D) gainsharing. E) merit-based pay.

58) A ________ plan distributes compensation based on some established formula designed around revenue of the company. A) piece-rate. B) merit-based. C) skill-based. D) profit-sharing. E) competency-based.

59) ________ is a formula-based group incentive plan that uses improvements in group productivity from one period to another to determine the total amount of money allocated. A) Employee stock ownership plan. B) Gainsharing. C) Profit-sharing. D) Piece-rate pay plan. E) Merit-based pay plan.

60) Which of the following statements is true regarding gainsharing?. A) Gainsharing focuses on productivity gains rather than profits. B) Gainsharing involves paying employees based on the number of new skills acquired by them in a specific time period. C) Gainsharing does not distribute profits, only gains in profits. D) Employees working under gainsharing plans have a greater feeling of psychological ownership. E) Gain sharing encourages social loafing.

61) At Dortix, a manufacturing company, at the end of every quarter, the total production of each department is calculated, compared with the predetermined targets, and the rewards for each set of divisional employees is determined this way. Dortix uses a ________ plan to incentivize its employees. A) profit-sharing. B) gainsharing. C) core-plus. D) modular. E) bonus.

62) Which of the following variable pay programs is free from dependence on company profits?. A) profit-sharing. B) job sharing. C) bonuses. D) employee stock ownership plans. E) gainsharing.

63) An advantage of the ________ plan is that benefits accrue to groups of workers, high-performing workers pressure weaker performers to work harder, improving performance for the group as a whole. A) modular. B) gainsharing. C) skill-based pay. D) flexible benefits. E) profit-sharing.

64) Exsell is a popular consumer goods company known for hiring the best resources and using the best technology to produce an extensive range of goods. The manufacturing units consider productivity to be the only criterion; targets are upgraded, supervised, and rewarded amply. The groups with the highest productivity in each manufacturing unit owned by Exsell are incentivized using a substantial monthly monetary reward program. Of late, there have been some rumors about the company not doing very well in the market. Many claims of defective quality, declining market share, and employee unrest have been doing the rounds. However, the CEO of Exsell recently held a conference with the organization and the media to share its expansion plans for the coming year. He ended the conference with a discussion of how the profit margin of the company had grown substantially but many employees were left in doubt. Which of the following, if true, would indicate the need for Exsell to replace gainsharing with profit-sharing as a variable pay program for its employees?. A) The company used a merit-based pay plan for decades to reward the employees who deserved recognition for good performance. B) The company has opened multiple product categories and is experiencing brand dilution. C) Executives who receive and evaluate client feedback have found a lot of quality concerns with the products dispatched in recent times. D) The economy is showing signs of robust growth after last year's recession and losses. E) The consumer goods industry has traditionally had higher barriers to entry than other industries of similar size and reach.

65) At Esco Retail, all employees are constantly driven to work hard. The company places maximum emphasis on stocking high quality goods and providing high quality service to retain the edge they have in the retail industry. To promote organizational commitment further, employees are incentivized by enabling them to purchase company shares at below-market prices as a part of their benefits. This mode of providing incentives represents the use of ________. A) flexible benefits plans. B) merit-based plans. C) modular plans. D) employee stock ownership plans. E) core-plus plans.

66) Which of the following statements is true regarding an employee stock ownership plan (ESOP)?. A) Under this plan, employees acquire company shares often at below-market prices. B) There exists a strong correlation between ESOPs and employee performance. C) The financial stake in the company is adequate to use ESOPs as an effective means to motivate employees. D) ESOPs are effective because, like bonuses, they reward recent performance. E) ESOPs are also called competency-based pay plans.

67) For employee stock ownership plans to be effective in improving performance, they must ________. A) be based solely on productivity like gainsharing plans. B) be implemented such that employees psychologically experience ownership. C) be determined on the basis of performance appraisals and recent performance. D) be planned such that they are unaffected by company profitability. E) be based on the market compensation philosophy.

68) Individualized rewards by allowing each employee to choose the compensation package that best satisfies his or her current needs and situation are called ________. A) variable pay programs. B) standardized benefits packages. C) employee recognition programs. D) employee involvement programs. E) flexible benefits plans.

69) Which of the following statements is true regarding flexible benefits?. A) Flexible benefits are awarded through uniform packages to cover the requirements of a married couple with two children. B) Flexible benefits are in accordance with the belief that employees have identical needs that must be rewarded identically. C) Gainsharing and profit-sharing plans are two major types of flexible benefits. D) Flexible benefits can be altered to meet employee needs based on age, marital status, and number and age of dependents. E) Flexible benefits are given based on an employee's skills, competence, and productivity.

70) ________ are predesigned packages or modules of benefits, each of which meets the needs of a specific group of employees. A) Modular plans. B) Employee stock ownership plans. C) Profit sharing plans. D) Merit-based plans. E) Flextime plans.

71) Core-plus plans consist of ________. A) predesigned packages of benefits that an employee must accept as a whole. B) monetary benefits which are linked to one's performance appraisals. C) fractions of a company's profit margins determined on the basis of an established formula. D) pretax dollars up to the dollar amount offered in the plan that an employee sets apart to pay for particular benefits. E) essential benefits and a menu-like selection of other benefits that an employee can choose from.

72) Sally Peterson, who works as an entry-level editor, wants to go for dental reconstruction surgery and sent a query to her HR department asking for a list of preferred hospitals. The HR looked through her healthcare plan which provided only a minimum coverage for routine drugs and vision care. Consequently, the HR manager has recently informed her that if she wishes to carry on with the dental procedure, she will have to pay for it on her own. Which of the following healthcare plans should she avail to meet her needs?. A) a basic modular plan. B) a standardized benefits package. C) a core-plus plan. D) a fringe benefits plan. E) a 401k plan.

73) Flexible spending plans consist of ________. A) a set of core of essential benefits and a menu-like selection of others from which employees can select. B) no base salary and pays the employee only for what he or she produces on the basis of a fixed sum for each unit of production completed. C) a fraction of a company's profit margins determined on the basis of an established formula. D) pretax dollars up to the dollar amount offered in the plan that an employee sets apart to pay for particular benefits. E) modules of benefits, each of which meets the needs of a specific group of employees.

74) Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward?. A) bonus. B) profit-sharing plan. C) employee stock option. D) employee recognition. E) gainsharing.

75) Jack Holmes is a middle-aged, lower-level employee at an automobile service center. Though he is not paid very well, he loves his job. His supervisor speaks to him with respect and he is the favored candidate for mentoring new employees because on the vast experience he holds in the job. Based on this information, which of the following is most likely to be the reason Jack likes his job?. A) recognition. B) prospects of growth. C) salary. D) flextime. E) job sharing.

76) Which of the following statements is true regarding employee recognition?. A) Employee recognition is an extrinsic reward. B) Critics argue that employee recognition programs are highly susceptible to political manipulation by management. C) Employee recognition programs are expensive. D) Centralized programs across multiple offices in different countries can hinder the process of employee recognition programs. E) Employee stock option is a more powerful workplace motivator than recognition.