Xicanada

1. Identify taxi lead off lights associated with the centerline lighting system. Alternate blue and white lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the centerline of the taxiway. Green lights curving from the centerline of the runway to the centerline of the taxiway. Alternate green and yellow lights curving from the centreline of the runway to a point on the exit.

2. How can a pilot identify a military airport at night?. Green, yellow, and white beacon light. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

3. 8906 How can a pilot identify a lighted heliport at night?. Green, yellow, and white beacon light. White and red beacon light with dual flash of the white. Green and white beacon light with dual flash of the white.

4. Identify the runway distance remaining markers. Signs with increments of 1,000 feet distance remaining. Red markers laterally placed across the runway at 3,000 feet from the end. Yellow marker laterally placed across the runway with signs on the side denoting distance to end.

5. What are the indications of Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)?. High - white, on glidepath - red and white; low - red. High - white, on glidepath - green; low - red. High - white and green, on glidepath - green; low - red.

6. What does the pulsating VASI consist of?. Three-light system, two pulsing and one steady. Two-light projectors, one pulsing and one steady. One-light projector, pulsing white when above glide slope or red when more than slightly below glide slope, steady white when on glide slope, steady red for slightly below glide path.

7. What are the indications of the pulsating VASI?. High - pulsing white, on glidepath - green, low - pulsing red. High - pulsing white, on glidepath - steady white, slightly below glide slope steady red, low - pulsing red. High - pulsing white, on course and on glidepath - steady white, off course but on glidepath - pulsing white and red; low - pulsing red.

8. What is the advantage of a three-bar VASI?. Pilots have a choice of glide angles. A normal glide angle is afforded both high and low cockpit aircraft. The three-bar VASI is much more visible and can be used at a greater height.

9. A pilot of a high-performance airplane should be aware that flying a steeper-than-normal VASI glide slope angle may result in. A hard landing. Increased landing rollout. landing short of the runway threshold.

10. The higher glide slope of the three-bar VASI is intended for use by. High performance aircraft. Helicopters. High cockpit aircraft.

11. What is the purpose of REIL?. Identification of a runway surrounded by a preponderance of other lighting. Identification of the touchdown zone to prevent landing short. Establish visual descent guidance information during an approach.

12. Identify REIL. Amber lights for the first 2,000 feet of runway. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runway. Synchronized flashing lights laterally at each side of the runway threshold.

13. What does the tri-color VASI consist of?. Three light bars; red, green, and amber. One light projector with three colors; red, green, and amber. Three glide slopes, each a different color; red, green, and amber.

14. Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "high" indication?. Red. Amber. Green.

15. Which color on a tri-color VASI is an "on course" indication?. Red. Amber. Green.

16. Which color on a tri-color VASI is a "low" indication?. Red. Amber. Green.

17. What is the normal range of the tri-color VASI at night?. 5 miles. 10 miles. 15 miles.

18. What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) consist of?. Row of four lights parallel to the runway; red, white, and green. Row of four lights perpendicular to the runway; red and white. One light projector with two colors; red and white.

19. Fig. 129 What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 2,000 feet.

20.Fig. 130 What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet.

21. Fig. 130 What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 3,000 feet.

22. Fig. 130 What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 2,500 feet. 2,000 feet. 1,500 feet.

23. What is the lowest Category IIIA minimum?. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. RVR 1,000 feet. RVR 700 feet.

24. How does the SDF differ from an ILS LOC?. SDF - 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°. SDF - offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway. SDF - 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.

25. What functions are provided by ILS?. Azimuth, distance, and vertical angle. Azimuth, range, and vertical angle. Guidance, range, and visual information.

26. How does the LDA differ from an ILS LOC?. LDA. 6° or 12° wide, ILS - 3° to 6°. LDA. offset from runway plus 3°, ILS - aligned with runway. LDA. 15° usable off course indications, ILS - 35°.

27. When is the course deviation indicator (CDI) considered to have a full-scale deflection?. When the CDI deflects from full-scale left to full-scale right, or vice versa. When the CDI deflects from the center of the scale to full-scale left or right. When the CDI deflects from half-scale left to half-scale right, or vice versa.

28. Which "rule-of-thumb" may be used to approximate the rate of descent required for a 3° glidepath?. 5 times groundspeed in knots. 8 times groundspeed in knots. 10 times groundspeed in knots.

29. What facilities may be subsituted for an inoperative middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?. ASR and PAR. The middle marker has no effect on straight-in minimums. Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.

30. Fig. 135 to 138 Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?. 710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope. 710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope. 430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.

31. Fig. 136 -138 Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300-foot point from the runway is indicated?. 21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline. 28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline. 21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.

32. Fig. 137 - 138 Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated?. 1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope. 1,550 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 210 feet above the glide slope. 775 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 420 feet below the glide slope.

33. Fig. 139 On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No.1 NAV?. R-175. R-165. R-345.

34. Fig. 139 Which OBS selection on the No.1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?. 175. 165. 345.

35. Fig. 139 What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No.2 NAV?. 1°. 2°. 4°.

36. Fig. 139 Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI?. 174. 166. 335.

37. Fig. 139 Which OBS selection on the No.2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?. 166. 346. 354.

38. Fig. 140/141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond?. 9 and 6. 9 only. 6 only.

39. Fig. 140-141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "B" correspond?. 11. 5 and 13. 7 and 11.

40. Fig. 140-141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "C" correspond?. 9. 4. 12.

41. Fig. 140-141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "D" correspond?. 1. 10. 2.

42. Fig. 140-141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "E" correspond?. 8 only. 8 and 3. 3 only.

43. Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "F" correspond?. 4. 11. 5.

44. Fig. 140-141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "G" correspond?. 7 only. 7 and 11. 5 and 13.

45. When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?. When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 year of age. Only during the en route flight. During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.

46. If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot. And the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen. Must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available. Shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen.

47. If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?. FL 200. FL 300. FL 250.

48. If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed?. For taxi, takeoff, and landing. Only for takeoff and landing. During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.

49. If there is a required emergency exit located in the flightcrew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be. Unlocked during takeoff and landing. Locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. Latched open during takeoff and landing.

50. Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must. Latched open during takeoff and landing. Be operable manually from the flightcrew station and a point in the passenger compartment. Be armed or turned on during taxiling and all flight operations.

51. Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger-carrying airplane?. The most forward location in the passenger cabin. In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.

52.How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried?. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin.

53. How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried?. Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabi. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.

54. In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flightcrew is. Encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished. Required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures. Required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished.

55. Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England?. A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft. A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survivaltype emergency locator transmitter for each required liferaft.

56. Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each. Aircraft occupant. Seat on the aircraft. Passenger seat, plus 10 percent.

57. For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for. All of the passengers, plus 10 percent. All aircraft occupants. All passenger seats.

58. When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?. One for each passenger seat. One for each passenger, plus 10 percent. One for each occupant of the aircraft.

59. Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored. Within easy reach of each passenger. Under each occupant seat. Within easy reach of each seated occupant.

60. An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Survival kit for each passenger. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.

61. An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. Survival kit for each passenger. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

62. An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. Survival kit for each passenger.

63. How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?. A minimum of 2 hours supply. Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.

64. What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for. Each passengers for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude. 30 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.

65. Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin. May have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net. Must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. Must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.

66. Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?. All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers. Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment. Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.

67. A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane?. A large airplane. A turbojet airplane. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

68. An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it. Has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. Has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. Weighs more than 12,500 pounds.

69. What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?. Two. Four. Three.

70. A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above. FL 200. FL 240. FL 250.

71. The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of. 10,000 feet within 4 minutes. 14,000 feet within 4 minutes. 12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker.

72. Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes. Of FL 260. Of FL 250. Above FL 250.

73. A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within. 5 seconds. 10 seconds. 15 seconds.

74. For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for. 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours. Each passenger for 30 minutes.

75. At which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes. 15,000 feet. 16,000 feet. 14,000 feet.

76. What is the flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?. FL 240. FL 250. Above FL 250.

77. If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?. The second in command only. Any flight crewmember, if qualified. Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.

78. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in FAR Part 121 operations?. If the airplane is being flown on proving flight, with revenue cargo aboard. If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. If required by the airplane's type certificate.

79. When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer?. 80,000 pounds. More than 80,000 pounds. 300,000 pounds.

80. The "age 60 rule" of FAR Part 121 applies to. Any required pilot crewmember. Any flight crewmember. The pilot in command only.

81. An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?. Four. Three. Two.

82. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?. Five. Four. Three.

89. Which document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency?. Airplane Flight Manual. Certificate holder's manual. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.

90. The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the. Pilot in command. Air carrier's chief pilot. Certificate holder.

91. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?. Five. Four. Three.

92. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?. Seven. Six. Five.

93. The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above. FL 180. FL 200. FL 250.

94. A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

95. A person whose duties include the handling or carriage of dangerous articles and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established and approved training program within the preceding. 24 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 6 calendar months.

96. A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

97. Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?. At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.

98. What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience?. At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. At least one full stop landing must be made. At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.

99. What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for a domestic air carrier?. The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. The line checks is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.

100. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated. At least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. One crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. One pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

101. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for. One pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. The flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. At least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

102. If a flight crewmember completes a required anual flight check in December 1987 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 1989, the latter check is considered to have been taken in. November 1988. December 1988. January 1989.

103. The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is. Upgrade training. Transition training. Initial training.

104. A crewmember who has served as second incommand on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100) may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program?. Upgrade training. Recurrent training. Initial training.

105. The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is. Difference training. Transition training. Upgrade training.

106.How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every. 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.

107. A flag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and one additional flight crewmember, for no more than. 8 hours during any 12 consecutive hours. 10 hours during any 12 consecutive hours. 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours.

108. The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a flag air carrier may schedule a pilot in a two-pilot crew without a rest period is. 8 hours. 10 hours. 12 hours.

109. The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the pilot in command in a two-pilot crew for a flag air carrier is. 35 hours. 32 hours. 30 hours.

110. The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a crewmember, in a commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is. 100 hours. 120 hours. 300 hours.

111. A supplemental air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew, for flight deck duty during any 24-consecutive-hour period for not more than. 8 hours. 6 hours. 10 hours.

112. Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff?. Keep safety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector.

113. What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?. Cargo and passenger distribution information. Copy of the flight plan. Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.

114. How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is Respuesta. Considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots. Considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators. Not considered to be part of a rest period.

115. Duty and rest period rules for domestic air carrier operations require that a flight crewmember. Not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. Not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30 day period. Be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days.

116. A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required?. Not more than 1 hour. Not more than 2 hours. More than 6 hours.

117. If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within. 7 days. 5 days. 48 hours.

118. When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies?. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.

119. Each crewmember shall have readly available for individual use on each flight a. Key to the flight deck door. Certificate holder's manual. Flashlight in good working order.

120. If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the. Appropriate ground radio station. Nearest FAA district office. Operations manager (or director of operations).

121. If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command. Must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. May continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. May continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

122. When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within. 10 days after the deviation. 10 days after returning home. 10 days after returning to home base.

123. What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.

124. The persons jointly responsable for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the. Pilot in command and chief pilot. Pilot in command and director of operations. Pilot in command and the flight follower.

125. The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck. Except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. In the interest of safety. Except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB.

126. If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency the aircraft dispatcher should. Take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. Comply wiht the company's lost aircraft plan. Phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.

127. Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?. Pilot in command. Dispatcher. Person who declares the emergency.

128. A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time it may depart without being redispatched is. 2005Z. 1905Z. 0005Z.

129. A domestic air carrier airplane land at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is. 1945Z. 1915Z. 1845Z.

130. When a flag a air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization?. 1922Z. 1952Z. 0022Z.

131. If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?. 1945Z. 2015Z. 0045Z.

132. The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and at the most distant alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in additi0on to the fuel required to the alternate airport.

133. The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight with in the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.

134. What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to the alternate. To fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

135. For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powerd airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly. At least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. For 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Back to the departure airport.

136. An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous United States, if enough fuel. Is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. Is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. To fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.

137. The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.

138. Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane?. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. 45 minutes at holding altitude. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.

139. The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is. 3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

140. A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.

141. The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the 48 contiguous United States. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. the fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

142. By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregulrities of facilities and services?. The aircraft dispatcher. Air route traffic control center. Director of operations.

143. Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight?. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations or flight follower. Pilot in command.

144. During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?. Aircraft dispatcher. Pilot in command. Director of operations or flight follower.

145. Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAMs?. Any company dispatch facility. Notices To Airmen publication. Airport/Facility Directory.

146. Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?. Company meteorologist. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations.

147. Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has. Logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding Month, in operations under 14 CFR part. Made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. Logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.

148. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? Respuesta. Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. Dispatch release and weight and balance release. Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.

149. How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan?. 1 month. 3 months. 12 months.

150. A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least. 3 months. 6 months. 30 months.

151. When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport?. Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1. Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.

152. Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?. Type of operation (e.g. IFR, VFR), trip number. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight.

153. The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are. Supplemental and commercial. Supplemental and domestic. Flag and commercial.

154. What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.

155. What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release?. Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. Minimum fuel supply and trip number. Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.

156. The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the. Weather reports and forecasts. Names of all crewmembers. Minimum fuel supply.

157. Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight?. Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.

158. Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172 If not excepted, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing acetone?. No label is required. POISON. FLAMMABLE LIQUID.

159. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172) What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetyl bromide in one package that may be carried in a cargo-only aircraft? (Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175). 1 quart. 1 gallon. No limit is specified.

160. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172) What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetylene in one package that may be carried in a passenger-carrying aircraft?. Any amount is forbbiden. 300 pounds. No limit is specified.

161. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172) If not expected, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing allethrin?. ORM-A. None. CORROSIVE.

162. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 172) What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of aluminum hydride in one package that may be carried in a passenger-carrying aircraft?. No limit is specified. 25 pounds. Any amount is forbbiden.

163. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) Hazardous material shipped on an aircraft must be described and certified on a shipping paper. For what period of time must the originating aircraft operator retain one copy of this document?. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

165. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) Certain classes of hazardous material may be shipped by air but are not permitted aboard passenger-carrying aircraft. How must such material be labeled?. DANGEROUS. HAZARDOUS/CLASS X. CARGO AIRCRAFT ONLY.

166. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) The aircraft operator discovers that the label on a container of hazardous materials is missing. How should the appropriate replacement label be determined?. Shipping papers. Hazardous material index. Hazardous Materials Tables of CFR 49.

167. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) An operator makes a telephone report of an incident involving fire during the loading of hazardous materials. Within what period of time must a written report be submitted?. 48 hours. 10 days. 15 days.

168. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) Which procedure must be followed if an operator, when loading magnetized material, cannot avoid placing it in a position where it affects the accuracy of the magnetic compass. Placard the compass "unreliable". Rely solely on electronic navigation. Make a special compass swing and calibration.

169. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) Which class of hazardous material must be loaded aboard an aircraft in a position that allows no contact with containers of corrosive materials?. Organic chemicals. Oxidizing materials. Catalytic agents.

170. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) What is the maximum weight of hazardous material (other than nonflammable compressed gas) that may be carried in an accessible cargo compartment of a passenger-carrying aircraft?. 50 pounds, unless otherwise specifically permitted. 10 pounds, if classified as corrosive. 25 pounds, if classified as ORM-D.

171. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) What is the maximum, if any, number of packages of ORM material that may be transported in a passenger-carrying aircraft?. No limit applies. A number whose combined transportation indices total 50. A number whose combined transportation indices total 100.

172. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) If transported in a passenger-carrying aircraft, what is the maximum combined transportation indices of packages containing radioactive materials?. 100. 50. 25.

173. What precaution, if any, should be taken if dry ice is carried aboard an aircraft?. This material does not require special precautions. A waiver to carry this material should be requested from the DGTA. Proper ventilation of the aircraft should be assured.

174. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175) What is the minimum distance that a package of radioactive materials bearing the label "RADIOACTIVE YELLOW II", and having a transport index of 15, may be placed from a space continuously occupied by people?. 3 feet. 4 feet. 5 feet.

175. (Refer to Excerpt from CFR 49, Part 175.) What is the maximum quantity of flammable liquid fuel that may be carried in the cabin of a small, nonscheduled, passenger-carrying aircraft being operated in a remote area of the United States?. 10 gallons. 15 gallons. 20 gallons.

176. What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a "serious injury"?. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. 10 days; with no other extenuating circumstances.

177. Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?. Immediately. 7 calendar days. 10 days.

178. Which of the following constitutes "substantial damage" according to NTSB Part 830?. Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires. Damage to wingtips (or rotor blades, in the case of a helicopter). Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement.

179. Which of the following meets the requirements of a "serious injury" as defined by the NTSB?. A simple fracture of the nose or other extremity. An injury which caused severe tendon damage. First-degree bums over 5 percent of the body.

180. Which incident requries an inmediate notification to NTSB?. Aircraft colliding on the ground. Flight control system malfunction. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $ 10,000.

181. Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?. 3 days. 7 days. 10 days.

182. When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?. Within 7 days. Within 10 days. Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

183. An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: Destination airport. Provisional airport. Alternate airport.

184. A provisonal airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of. Obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. Having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). Providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

185. A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued. An Air Carrier Certificate. A Supplemental Air Carrier Certificate. An Operating Certificate.

186. The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the. Certificate holder's operations specifications. Application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.

187. The crew interphone system on a large turbojet-powered airplane provides a means of two-way communications between ground personnel and at least one of two flight crewmembers in the pilot compartment, when the aircraft is on the ground. The interphon. Are always visible, from within the airplane. Are able to avold the intake areas of the engines. May avoid visible detection from within the airplane.

188. Which is a definition of the term "crewmember"?. Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

189. "Operational control" of a flight refer to. The specific duties of any required crewmember. Exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. Exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.

190. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?. ATP: B-727 and DC-3; Commercial: DC-9. ATP: B-727 only; Commercial: DC-9 and DC-3. ATP: B-727 and DC-9; Commercial: DC-3.

191. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?. 6 hours. 8 hours. 10 hours.

192. The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to. 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period. 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

193. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall be reported to the DGAC, Dirección de Personal Aeronáutico y Seguridad Aeronáutica?. No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

194. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is. Required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. Not required to have a medical certificate. Required to have a first-class medical certificate.

195. What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

196. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is. Required to have a first-class medical certificate. Required to have a second-class medical certificate. Not required to have a medical certificate.

197. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check specified in FAR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?. 12 months. 90 days. 6 months.

198. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs. A first-class medical certificate. At least a current third-class medical certificate. A second-class medical certificate.

199. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?. All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.

200. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is. Required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. Is not required to have a medical certificate. Required to have a first-class medical certificate.

201. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least. Six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. Six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. Six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.

202. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.

203. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?. When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums have been completed in the past 6 months. 120 days after issue or renewal.

204. A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to. Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. Pilots who have completed an DGTA-approved Category II training program. Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.

205. What is the lowest HAT for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization?. 100 feet AGL. 150 feet AGL. 200 feet AGL.

206. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is. Required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. Required to have a current first-class medical certificate. Not required to hold a medical certificate.

207. Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot-in-command required to hold a type rating?. When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.

208. When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?. 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.

209. During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does not deviate from an FAR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?. To the manager of the General Aviation District Office. To the manager of the facility in control at the time of the deviation. Upon request by ATC, submit a written report to the ATC manager.

210. When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?. When priority has been given. Anytime an emergency occurs. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

211. Lewiston-Nez Perce Co. is a FAR Part 139 airport. What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport should have? (Refer to Appendix 2, Legend 15, Appendix 3, Fig. Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemicals (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds DC and 1,000 gallons of water.

212. Newport News/Willimamsburg Intl is a FAR Part 139 airport. The A/FD contains the following entry: ARFF Index A.What is the minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire fighting vehicles, and the type and amount of fire fighting agents that the airport. Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds of DC plus 100 gallons of water. One vehicle and 500 pounds dry chemical (DC) or Halon 1211 or 350 pounds of DC plus 1,000 gallons of water.

213. Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?. ARINC. Any FSS. Appropriate dispatch office.

214. Information recorded during normal operations of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines. May all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. May be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. May all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.

215. Which rule applies to the use of cockpit voice recorder erasure fetaure?. All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. All recorded information may be erased, unless the DGAC needs to be notified of an occurrence.

216. For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system,. A minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test. A total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased. a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.

217. A cockpit voice recorder must be operated. From the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight. From the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklist prior to engine shutdown. When starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after termination of the flight.

218. When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?. VOR. VOR and DME. ADF.

219. When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped?. In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required. For flights at or above FL 180.

220. When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS, which rule applies?. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and land. The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.

221. What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms. Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining.

222. If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able t. Proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. Continue to the destination airport by means of dead reckoning navigation. Proceed to a suitable airport using VOR aids, complete an instrument approach and land.

223. If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only. When able to climb and descend VFR and manintain VFR/OT en route. In VFR conditions. In day VFR conditions.

224. An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be. Conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route. Carrying passengers, but not if it is "all cargo".

225. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?. One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. Airborne radar. DME.

226. Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?. All turbine powered airplanes. Passenger-carrying turbine-powered airplanes only. Large turbine-powered airplanes only.

227. Which equipment requirement must be met by an air carrier that elects to use a dual Inertial Navigation System (INS) on a proposed flight?. The dual system must consist of two operative INS units. A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS. Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS.

228. An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?. VOR. VOR and ILS. VOR and DME.

229. Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the. Airplane Flight Manual. International Flight Information Manual. Air carrier´s Operations Specifications.

230. Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?. Air Carrier's Operations Specifications. International Flight Information Manual. Airplane Flight Manual.

231. An air carrier that elects to use an Inertial Navigational System (INS) must meet which equipment requirement prior to takeoff on a proposed flight?. The INS system must consist of two operative INS units. Only one INS is required to be operative, if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS. A dual VORTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS.

232. Figura 125 Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235° FROM the station? (Wind 050° at 20 knots.). 2. 3. 4.

233. Fig. 125 What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4?. 285°. 055°. 235°.

234. Fig. 125 Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station?. 1. 2. 3.

235. 8871 Fig. 125 Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055° radial of the station and heading away from the station?. 1. 2. 3.

236. What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?. Lights are closer together and easily distniguished from surrounding lights. Amber lights replace white on the last 2,000 feet of runway for a caution zone. Alternate red and white lights replace the white on the last 3,000 feet of runway for a caution zone.

237. Identify touchdown zone lighting (TDZL). Two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the runway centerline. Flush centerline lights spaced at 50-foot intervals extending through the touchdown zone. Alternate white and green centerline lights extending from 75 feet from the threshold through the touchdown zone.

238. Identify runway remaining lighting on centerline lighting systems. Amber lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then alternate red and white lights to the end. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to 1,000 feet, then red lights to the end. Alternate red and white lights from 3,000 feet to the end of the runway.

239. Fig. 130 What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 500 feet. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet.

240. Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "E" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,500 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet.

241. Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "A" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. 2,000 feet. 3,000 feet. 3,500 feet.

242. Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "D" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 3,000 feet. 2,500 feet. 1,500 feet.

243. Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "B" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,500 feet.

244. Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "F" for a daytime takeoff on runway 9?. 2,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 1,000 feet.

245. Fig. 131 What is the runway distance remaining at "C" for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9?. 1,000 feet. 1,500 feet. 1,800 feet.

246. How may a pilot determine if a LORAN-C receiver is authorized for IFR operations?. Consult the Airplane Flight Manual Supplement. A placard stating, "LORAN-C APPROVED FOR IFR EN ROUTE, TERMINAL AND APPROACH SEGMENTS.". An airframe logbook entry that the LORAN-C receiver has been checked within the previous 30-calendar days.

247. What documents the authorized operational level of LORAN-C?. A placard stating "KIRAB-C APPROVED FOR IFR.". The Airplane Flight Manual Supplement or DGAC Form 337, Major Repair and Alteration. An entry in the aircraft maintenance logbook giving place, date, and signature of authorizing official.

248. LORAN-C is based upon measurements of the difference in time arrival of pulses generated by what type radio stations?. A group of stations operating on the 108-115 MHz frequency band. Two stations operating on the 90-110 MHz frequency band. A chain of stations operating on the 90-110 kHz frequency band.

249. Which class of NOTAM gives the latest information on LORAN-C chain or station outages?. NOTAM (L)'s under the identifier "LORAN-C.". NOTAM (D)'s under the identifier "LRN.". Class II NOTAM's published every 14 days.

250. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer group?. Inner marker. Middle compass locator. Outer compass locator.

251. Which component associated with the ILS is identified by the first two letters of the localizer identification group?. Inner marker. Middle compass locator. Outer compass locator.

252. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS inner marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

253. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS middle marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

254. What aural and visual indications should be observed over an ILS outer marker?. Continuous dots at the rate of six per second. Continuous dashes at the rate of two per second. Alternate dots and dashes at the rate of two per second.

255. Within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS operate?. 108.10 to 118.10 MHz. 108.10 to 111.95 MHz. 108.10 to 117.95 MHz.

256. If installed, what aural and visual indications should be observed over the ILS back course marker?. A series of two dot combinations, and a white marker beacon light. Continuous dashes at the rate of one per second, and a white marker beacon light. A series of two dash combinations, and a white marker beacon light.

257. The lowest ILS Category II minimums are. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet.

258. Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "H" correspond?. 8. 1. 2.

259. Fig. 140 - 141 To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "I" correspond?. 4. 12. 11.

260. Fig. 142 - 143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond?. 4. 15. 17.

261. Fig. 142 - 143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "E" correspond?. 5. 6. 15.

262. Fig. 142-143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond?. 10. 14. 16.

263. Fig. 142-143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond?. 1. 8. 11.

264. Fig. 142 - 143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond?. 9. 13. 19.

265. Fig. 142-143 To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" correspond?. 6. 7. 12.

266. What would be the identification when a VORTAC is undergoing routine maintenance and is considered unreliable?. A test signal, "TESTING", is sent every 30 seconds. Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent "OFF" flag would appear. The identifier would be removed.

267. Which indication may be received when a VOR is undergoing maintenance and is considered unreliable?. Coded identification T-E-S-T. Identifier is preceded by "M" and an intermittent "OFF" flag might appear. An automatic voice recording stating the VOR is out-of-service for maintenance.

268. What DME indications should a pilot observe when directly over a VORTAC site at 12,000 feet?. 0 DME miles. 2 DME miles. 2.3 DME miles.

269. Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between the ground distance and displayed distance to the VORTAC?. High altitudes close to the VORTAC. Low altitudes close to the VORTAC. Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.

270. During an en route descent in a fixed-thrust and fixed-pitch attitude configuration, both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become completely blocked by ice. What airspeed indication can be expected?. Increase in indicated airspeed. Decrease in indicated airspeed. Indicated airspeed remains at the value prior to icing.

271. What can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?. The airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter. The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude. No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.

272. If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked by ice, what airspeed indication can be expected?. No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight if large power changes are made. Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb. Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.

273. When setting the altimeter, pilots should disregard. Effects of nonstandard atmospheric temperatures and pressures. Corrections for static pressure systems. Corrections for instrument error.

274. En route at FL270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?. 585 feet. 1,300 feet. Sea level.

275. What is corrected altitude (approximate true altitude)?. Pressure altitude corrected for instrument error. Indicated altitude corrected for temperature variation from standard. Density attitude corrected for temperature variation from standard.

276. If the ambient temperature is warmer than standard at FL350, what is the density altitude compared to pressure altitude?. Lower than pressure altitude. Higher than pressure altitude. Impossible to determine without information on possible inversion layers at lower altitudes.

277. If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?. They are both the same, 31,000 feet. True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet. Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.

278. Which pressure is defined as station pressure?. Altimeter setting. Actual pressure at field elevation. Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.

279. How will the airspeed indicator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?. Indication will drop to zero. Indication will rise to the top of the scale. Indication will remain constant but will increase in a climb.

280. What type service should normally be expected from an En Route Flight Advisory Service?. Weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight, intended route of flight, and altitude. Severe weather information, changes in flight plans, and receipt of position reports. Radar vectors for traffic separation, route weather advisories, and altimeter settings.

281. Below FL 180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on. 122.1 MHz. 122.0 MHz. 123.6 MHz.

282. How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?. 60 days. 90 days. 30 días.

283. What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?. 4° on the ground and in flight. 6° on the ground and in flight. 6° and in flight and 4° on the ground.

284. Which entry shall be recorded by the person performing a VOR operational check?. Frequency, radial and facility used, and bearing error. Flight hours and number of days since last check, and bearing error. Date, place, bearing error, and signature.

285. Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?. VOR within 30 days and altimeter systems and transponder within 24 calendar months. ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months. Airspeed indicator within 24 calendar months, altimeter system within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 12 calendar months.

286. A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall. Not use the VASI unless a clearance for a VASI approach is received. Use the VASI only when weather conditions are below basic VFR. Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

287. What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the DGTA if requested. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

288. What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?. Notify ATC immediately. Squawk 7600. Monitor the VOR receiver.

289. While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot-in-command follow?. No call is required if one of the two VOR receivers is operating properly. Advise ATC immediately. Notify the dispatcher via company frequency.

290. While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What action is required?. Descend below Class A airspace. Advise dispatch via company frequency. Notify ATC immediately.

291. Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?. VOR/DME FIX. Surveillance radar. Compass locator.

292. What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check?. The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of hours flown since last check, and signature in the aircraft log. The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record. The date, approval or disapproval, tach reading, and signature in the aircraft log or other permanent record.

293. During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indication centers on 356° with the TO/FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may. Be used if 4° is entered on a correction card and substracted from all VOR courses. Be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits. Not be used during IFR flights, since the TO/FROM should read TO.

294. If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is. Plus or minus 6°. Plus 6° or minus 4°. Plus or minus 4°.

295. A function of the minimum equipment list is to indicate required items which. Are required to be operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. May be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base. May be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.

296. When is DME required for an instrument flight?. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. In terminal radar service areas. Above 12,500 feet MSL.

297. Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining. Who was responsible for any accident or incident. Evidence for use in civil penalty or certifcate action. Possible causes of accidents or incidents.

298. Which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II approach in addition to LOC, glide slope, marker beacons, and approach lights?. Radar and RVR. RCLS and REIL. HIRL, TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

299. When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?. After passing the visual descent point (VDP). When the RVR is 1,600 feet or more. When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.

300. In addition to the localizer, glide slope, marker beacons, approach lighting, and HIRL, which ground components are required to be operative for a Category II instrument approach to a DH below 150 feet AGL?. RCLS and REIL. Radar and RVR. TDZL, RCLS, and RVR.

301. When instructed by ATC to "Hold short of a runway (ILS critical area, etc.)," the pilot should stop. With the nose gear on the hold line. So that no part of the aircraft extends beyond the hold line. So the flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line.

302. You have just landed at JFK and the tower tells you to call ground control when clear of the runway. You are considered clear of the runway when. The aft end of the aircraft is even with the taxiway location sign. The flight deck area of the aircraft is even with the hold line. All parts of the aircraft have crossed the hold line.

303. Holding position signs have. White inscriptions on a red background. Red inscriptions on a white background. Yellow inscriptions on a red background.

304. Airport information signs, used to provide destination or information, have. Yellow inscriptions on a black background. White inscriptions on a black background. Black inscriptions on a yellow background.

305. Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines (two solid and two dashed) that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are. White in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. Yellow in color and the dashed lines are nearest the runway. Yellow in color and the solid lines are nearest the runway.

306. TCAS I provides. Traffic and resolution advisories. Proximity warning. Recommended maneuvers to avoid conflicting traffic.

307. TCAS II provides. Traffic and resolution advisories. Proximity warning. Maneuvers in all directions to avoid the conflicting traffic.

308. Each pilot, who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory, is expected to. Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. Request a new ATC clearance. Expeditiously return to the ATC clearance in effect prior to the advisory, after the conflict is resolved.

309. Each pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS advisory is expected to. Maintain the course and altitude resulting from the deviation, as ATC has radar contact. Request ATC clearance for the deviation. Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable.

310. Fig. 156 This sign, which faces the runway and is visible to the pilot, indicates. A point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by the tower. A point at which the aircraft will be clear of the runway. The point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway.

311. Fig. 157 This is an example of: An ILS Critical Area Holding Position Sign. A Runway Boundary Sign. An ILS Critical Area Boundary Sign.

312. (Refer to Figure 112) While arcing left on the IAH 10 DME Arc, the pilot experiences a left crosswind component. Where should the bearing pointer be referenced relative to the 90° (wingtip) position to maintain the 10 DME range?. On the left wingtip reference. Behind the left wingtip reference. Ahead of the left wingtip reference.

313. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. The equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a. The pilot must review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular receiver. Procedures must be established for use in the event that the loss of RAIM capability is predicted to occur.

314. Authorization to conduct any GPS operation under IFR requires that. The pilot review appropriate weather, aircraft flight manual (AFM), and operation of the particular GPS receiver. Air carrier and commercial operators must meet the appropriate provisions of their approved operations specifications. The equipment be approved in accordance with TSO C-115a.

315. Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) include landing and holding short: Of an intersecting taxiway only. Of some designated point on the runway. Only of an intersecting runway or taxiway.

316. A Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) clearance, that the pilot accepts: Must be adhered to. Does not preclude a rejected landing. Precludes a rejected landing.

317. In conducting Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO), the pilot should have readily available: The published Available Landing Distance (ALD), landing performance of the aircraft, and slope of all LAHSO combinations at the destination airport. The published runway length and slope for all LAHSO combinations at the airport of intended landing. The landing performance of the aircraft, published Available Landing Distance (ALD) for all LASHO combinations at the airport of intended landing, plus the forecast winds.

318. The airport markings, signage and lighting associated with Land and Hold Short (LAHSO) consists of: Yellow hold-short markings, red and white signage, and in-pavement lights. Red and white signage, yellow hold-short markings, and at some airports, in-pavement lights. Red and black signage, in-pavement lights, and yellow hold-short markings.

319. When are inboard ailerons normally used?. Low-speed flight only. High-speed flight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.

320. When are outboard ailerons normally used?. Low-speed flight only. High-speed flight only. Low-speed and high-speed flight.

321. Which of the following is considered a primary flight control?. Slats. Elevator. Dorsal fin.

322. Which of the following is considered an auxiliary flight control?. Ruddervator. Upper rudder. Leading-edge flaps.

323. What is the purpose of a control tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

324. What is the purpose of an anti-servo tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

325. What is the purpose of a servo tab?. Move the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. Reduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move a primary flight control. Prevent a control surface from moving to a full-deflection position due to aerodynamic forces.

326. Which is a purpose of leading-edge flaps?. Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack. Increase the camber of the wing.

327. What is a purpose of flight spoilers?. Increase the camber of the wing. Reduce lift without increasing airspeed. Direct airflow over the top of the wing at high angles of attack.

328. For which purpose may flight spoilers be used?. Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. Increase the rate of descent without increasing aerodynamic drag. Aid longitudinal balance when rolling an airplane into a turn.

329. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?. Increase lift at relative slow speeds. Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. Direct air from the low pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.

330. Which is a purpose of leading-edge slats on high-performance wings?. Decrease lift at relative slow speeds. Improve aileron control during low angles of attack. Direct air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing.

331. Which is a purpose of ground spoilers?. Reduce the wings' lift upon landing. Aid in rolling an airplane into a turn. Increase the rate of descent without gaining airspeed.

332. Which direction from the primary control surface does an anti-servo tab move?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

333. Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

334. Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is moved?. Same direction. Opposite direction. Remains fixed for all positions.

335. What is the purpose of an elevator trim tab?. Provide horizontal balance as airspeed is increased to allow hands-off flight. Adjust the speed tail load for different airspeeds in flight allowing neutral control forces. Modify the downward tail load for various airspeeds in flight eliminating flight-control pressures.

336. Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?. Reduce the drag caused by supersonic flow over portions of the wing. Increase the onset of drag divergence and aid in aileron effectiveness at high speed. Break the airflow over the wing so the stall will progress from the root out to the tip of the wing.

337. Why do some airplanes equipped with inboard/outboard ailerons use the outboards for slow flight only?. Increased surface are provides greater controllability with flap extension. Aerodynamic loads on the outboard ailerons tend to twist the wingtips at high speeds. Locking out the outboard ailerons in high-speed flight provides variable flight control feel.

338. Which of the following are considered primary flight controls?. Tabs. Flaps. Outboard ailerons.

339. What effect does an increase in airspeed have on a coordinated turn while maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude?. The rate of turn will decrease resulting in a decreased load factor. The rate of turn will increase resulting in a increased load factor. The rate of turn will decrease resulting in no changes in load factor.

340. What is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?. Drag increases because of increased induced drag. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.

341. What is load factor?. Lift multiplied by the total weight. Lift substracted from the total weight. Lift divided by the total weight.

342. What affects indicated stall speed?. Weight, load factor, and power. Load factor, angle of attack, and power. Angle of attack, weight, and air density.

343. What is the free stream Mach number which produces first evidence of local sonic flow?. Supersonic Mach number. Transonic Mach number. Critical Mach number.

344. At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?. Below .75 Mach. From .75 to 1.20 Mach. From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

345. What is the principal advantage of a sweepback design wing over a straightwing design?. The critical Mach number will increase significantly. Sweepback will increase changes in the magnitude of force coefficients due to compressibility. Sweepback will accelerate the onset of compressibility effect.

346. What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?. A high-speed stall and sudden pitchup. A severe moment or "tuck under". Severe porpoising.

347. What is one disadvantage of a sweptwing design?. The wing root stalls prior to the wingtip section. The wingtip section stalls prior to the wing root. Severe pitchdown moment when the center of pressure shifts forward.

348. What is the condition known as when gusts cause a sweptwing-type airplane to roll in one direction while yawing in the other?. Porpoise. Wingover. Dutch roll.

349. What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock-stalled first?. Inward and aft. Inward and forward. Outward and forward.

350. For a given angle of bank, the load factor imposed on both the aircraft and pilot in a coordinated constant-altitude turn. Is directly related to the airplane's gross weight. Varies with the rate of turn. Is constant.

351. What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross weight is increased?. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag. Both parasite and induced drag are equally increased.

352. At which speed will increasing the pitch attitude cause an airplane to climb?. Low speed. High speed. Any speed.

353. Figure 1 What is the maximun landing distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (Dry) at the alternate airport?. 5,490 feet. 6,210 feet. 6,405 feet.

354. Fig. 1 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,490 feet. 6,210 feet. 6,405 feet.

355. Figure 1 What is the maximun landing distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (dry) at the alternate airport?. 5,460 feet. 5,460 feet. 6,370 feet.

356. Figure 1 What is the maximun landing distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,460 feet. 6,210 feet. 6,370 feet.

357. Figure 1 What is the maximun landing distance that may used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport catergory airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,460 feet. 5,490 feet. 6,210 feet.

358. Fig. 1 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (wet) at the destination airport?. 5,460 feet. 5,880 feet. 6,088 feet.

359. Fig. 2 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 19 (dry) at the destination airport?. 6,020 feet. 5,820 feet. 5,160 feet.

360. Fig. 2 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a reciprocating-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 1 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,010 feet. 5,820 feet. 5,845 feet.

361. Fig. 2 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 1 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,010 feet. 5,820 feet. 5,845 feet.

362. Fig. 2 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 19 (dry) at the destination airport?. 5,160 feet. 5,820 feet. 6,020 feet.

363. Fig. 2 May a small transport category, turbine-engine-powered airplane that has a computed landing distance of 5,500 feet use one or both of the runways depicted in the illustration at the destination airport?. Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist. Only Rwy 19 may be used provided dry conditions exist. Rwy 1 or Rwy 19 may be used whether conditions are wet or dry.

364. Fig. 2 May a small transport category, turboprop airplane that has a computed landing distance of 6,000 feet use either or both runways depicted in the illustration at the destination airport?. Only Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist. Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used under any conditions. Either Rwy 1 or Rwy 19 may be used whether conditions are wet or dry.

365. Fig. 2 What is the maximum landing distance that may be used for a non-transport category, turbopropeller-driven airplane to land on Rwy 1 (dry) at the alternate airport?. 5,010 feet. 5,845 feet. 6,020 feet.

366. Fig.2 Which condition meets FAR Part 135 operational requirements for a small, transport category, turboprop airplane to land at the destination airport that has the runway environment given in the illustration?. The airport may be listed as the destination airport if the landing distance does not exceed 5,160 feet for Rwy 19. The airport may NOT be listed as the destination airport if the landing distance exceeds 5,100 feet for Rwy 19. The airport may be listed as the destination airport if the landing distance does not exceed 5,350 feet for either runway, wet or dry conditions.

367. What effective runway lenght is required for a turbojet powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be slippery at the ETA?. 70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. 115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. 115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.

368. For which of these aircraft is the "clearway" for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations?. Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957 and August 30, 1959. Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958. U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959.

369. How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil?. An abrupt change in relative wind. A decrease in angle of attack. Sudden decrease in load factor.

370. If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained?. Vmc. Vyse. Vxse.

371. What is the resulting performance loss when one engine on a twin-engine fails?. Reduction of cruise airspeed by 50 percent. Reduction of climb by 50 percent or more. Reduction of all performance by 50 percent.

372. Under what condition is Vmc the highest?. Gross weight is at the maximum allowable value. CG is at the most rearward allowable position. CG is at the most forward allowable position.

373. What effect does landing at high elevation airports have on groundspeed with comparable conditions relative to temperature, wind, and airplane weight?. Higher than at low elevation. Lower than at low elevation. The same as at low elevation.

374. Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?. Angle of attack. Altitude. Airspeed.

375. What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum L/D in a propeller-driven airplane?. Maximum range and distance glide. Best angle of climb. Maximum endurance.

376. What should a pilot do to maintain "best range" airplane performance when a tailwind is encountered?. Increase speed. Maintain speed. Decrease speed.

377. If no corrective action is taken by the pilot as angle of bank is increased, how is the vertical component of lift and sink rate affected?. Lift increases and the sink rate increases. Lift decreases and the sink rate decreases. Lift decreases and the sink rate increases.

378. Why must the angle of attack be increased during a turn to maintain altitude?. Compensate for loss of vertical component of lift. Increase the horizontal component of lift equal to the vertical component. Compensate for increase in drag.

379. How can the pilot increase the rate of turn and decrease the radius at the same time?. Steepen the bank and increase airspeed. Steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. Shallow the bank and increase airspeed.

380. What is the relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank but increasing airspeed?. Rate will decrease and radius will increase. Rate will increase and radius will decrease. Rate and radius will increase.

381. Upon which factor does wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depend?. Rate of turn. Angle of bank. True airspeed.

382. If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total of 6,000 pounds in flight, the load factor would be. 2 Gs. 3 Gs.

383. Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators. Directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. Directing a suction over the top of the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. Making the wing surface rough and/or directing high pressure air over the top of the wing or flap through slots.

384. In a light, twin-engine airplane with one engine inoperative, when is it acceptable to allow the ball of a slip-skid indicator to be deflected outside the reference lines?. While maneuvering at minimum controllable airspeed to avoid overbanking. When operating at any airspeed greater than Vmc. When practicing immiment stalls in a banked attitude.

385. What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? Accelerate to. Best engine-out, rate-of-climb airspeed while on the ground, then lift off and climb at that speed. Vmc, then lift off at that speed and climb at maximum angle-of-climb airspeed. An airspeed slightly above Vmc, then lift off and climb at the best rate-of-climb airspeed.

386. What procedure is recommended for an engine-out approach and landing?. The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to a normal approach and landing. The altitude and airspeed should be considerably higher than normal throughout the approach. A normal approach, except do not extend the landing gear or flaps until over the runway threshold.

387. What performance should a pilot of a light, twin-engine airplane be able to maintain Vmc?. Heading. Heading and altitude. Heading, altitude, and ability to climb 50 ft/min.

388. What criteria determines which engine is the "critical" engine of a twin-engine airplane?. The one with the center of thrust closest to the centerline of the fuselage. The one designated by the manufacturer which develops most usable thrust. The one with the center of thrust farthest from the centerline of the fuselage.

389. What effect, if any, does altitude have on Vmc for an airplane with unsupercharged engines?. None. Increases with altitude. Decreases with altitude.

390. Under what condition should stalls never be practiced in a twin-engine airplane?. With one engine inoperative. With climb power on. With full flaps and gear extended.

391. What does the blue radial line on the airspeed indicator of a light, twin-engine airplane represent?. Maximum single-engine rate of climb. Maximum single-engine angle of climb. Minimum controllable airspeed for single-engine operation.

392. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative longitudinal static stability. Neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. Neutral longitudinal static stability.

393. What is a characteristic of longitudinal instability?. Pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater. Bank oscillations becoming progressively greater. Aircraft constantly tries to pitch down.

394. Describe dynamic longitudinal stability. Motion about the longitudinal axis. Motion abou the lateral axis. Motion about the vertical axis.

395. What is the reason for variations in geometric pitch along a propeller or rotor blade?. It permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. It prevents the portion of the blade near the hub or root from stalling during cruising flight. It permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight.

396. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Negative static stability. Positive static stability. Negative dynamic stability.

397. Identify the type stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the controls have been neutralized. Positive dynamic stability. Positive static stability. Neutral dynamic stability.

398. What flight condition should be expected when an aircraft leaves ground effect?. An increase in induced drag requiring a higher angle of attack. A decrease in parasite drag permitting a lower angle of attack. An increase in dynamic stability.

399. What characteristic should exist if an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range?. Sluggish in aileron control. Sluggish in rudder control. Unstable about the lateral axis.

400. What will be the ratio between airspeed and lift if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and airspeed is doubled? Lift will be. The same. Two times greater. Four times greater.

401. What true airspeed and angle of attack should be used to generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased?. The same true airspeed and angle of attack. A higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack. A lower true airspeed and higher angle of attack.

402. How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?. The same angle of attack. A lower angle of attack. A higher angle of attack.

403. What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the limit?. Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability. Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.

404. By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's. Lift, gross weight, and drag. lift, airspeed, and drag. lift and airspeed, but not drag.

405. The primary purpose of high-lift devices is to increase the. L/Dmax. lift at low speeds. drag and reduce airspeed.

406. What is the primary function of the leading edge flaps in landing configuration during the flare before touchdown?. Prevent flow separation. Decrease rate of sink. Increase profile drag.

407. What effect does the leading edge slot in the wing have on performance?. Decreases profile drag. hanges the stalling angle of attack to a higher angle. Decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.

408. Within what Mach range does transonic flight regimes usually occur?. 50 to .75 Mach. 75 to 1.20 Mach. 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.

408. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the wing?. Initial buffet speed. Critical Mach number. Transonic index.

409. At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does maximum rate-of-climb for a jet airplane occur?. A speed greater than that for L/Dmax. A speed equal to that for L/Dmax. A speed less than that for L/Dmax.

410. At what speed, with reference to L/Dmax, does maximum range for a jet airplane occur?. A speed less than that for L/Dmax. A speed equal to that for L/Dmax. A speed greater than that for L/Dmax.

411. Fig. 12 Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 9,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ......................................... 3,100 foot-pound. 3,040 foot-pound. 3,180 foot-pound.

412. Fig. 12 Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 7,500 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ........... 2,820 foot-pound. 2,880 foot-pound. 2,780 foot-pound.

413. Fig. 12 Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 7,500 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ......................................................... 3,200 foot-pound. 3,160 foot-pound. 3,330 foot-pound.

414. Fig. 12 Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 3,500 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ....................................................... +43°C. 3,000 foot-pound. 3,050 foot-pound. 3,110 foot-pound.

415. Fig. 12 Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 5,500 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ....................................................... +29°C. 2,950 foot-pound. 3,100 foot-pound. 3,200 foot-pound.

416. Fig. 13 Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle? Pressure altitude ..................................................... Sea Level Tempertaure (OAT) .................................................. 1,750 feet. 2,800 feet. 2,550 feet.

417. Fig. 13 Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff ground roll and V1 speed? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 4,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ........................................................ 2,900 feet, 106 knots. 4,250 feet, 102 knots. 2,700 feet, 107 knots.

418. Fig. 13 Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 2,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ................................................ 3,400 feet. 3,700 feet. 4,200 feet.

419. Fig. 13 Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff ground roll and V1 speed? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 3,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ....................................................... 2,200 feet, 105 knots. 2,000 feet, 113 knots. 1,900 feet, 103 knots.

420. Fig. 13 Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 6,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ................................................ 4,150 feet. 4,550 feet. 2,600 feet.

421. Fig. 14 Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 5,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ....................................................... +20. 6,300 feet. 4,700 feet. 4,300 feet.

422. Fig. 14 Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 2,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ....................................................... -15. 3,750 feet. 4,600 feet. 4,250 feet.

423. Fig. 14 Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 6,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) ....................................................... +1. 4,950 feet. 4,800 feet. 5,300 feet.

424. Fig. 14 Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? Pressure altitude ........................................................ 8,000 ft Tempertaure (OAT) .......................................................... 4,500 feet. 4,800 feet. 5,300 feet.

425. Fig. 14 Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? Pressure altitude ..................................................... Sea Level Tempertaure (OAT) ....................................................... +3. 2,500 feet. 2,850 feet. 3,050 feet.

426. Fig. 15,16,17 What is the two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-21?. 1,350 ft/min. 2,450 ft/min. 2,300 ft/min.

427. Fig. 15,16,17 What is the single-engine climb gradient after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-22?. 6.8 percent gradient. 7.5 percent gradient. 5.6 percent gradient.

428. Fig. 15,16,17 What is the two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-23?. 1,500 ft/min. 2,600 ft/min. 2,490 ft/min.

429. Fig. 15,16,17 What is the two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-24?. 2,100 ft/min. 2,400 ft/min. 1,500 ft/min.

430. Fig. 15,16,17 What is the single-engine climb gradient after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-25?. 385 ft/min. 780 ft/min. 665 ft/min.

431. Fig.15,18 What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-21?. 10.0 minutes; 290 pounds; 35 NM. 10.0 minutes; 165 pounds; 30 NM. 11.5 minutes; 165 pounds; 30 NM.

432. Fig. 15,18 What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-22?. 12.0 minutes; 220 pounds; 40 NM. 11.0 minutes; 185 pounds; 37 NM. 10.5 minutes; 175 pounds; 32 NM.

433. Fig. 15,18 What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-23?. 13.0 minutes; 180 pounds; 35 NM. 14.0 minutes; 210 pounds; 40 NM. 15.0 minutes; 240 pounds; 46 NM.

434. Fig. 15,18 What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-24?. 12.0 minutes; 220 pounds; 45 NM. 9.0 minutes; 185 pounds; 38 NM. 10.0 minutes; 170 pounds; 30 NM.

435. Fig. 15,18 What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-25?. 11.5 minutes; 170 pounds; 31 NM. 8.0 minutes; 270 pounds; 28 NM. 12.5 minutes; 195 pounds; 38 NM.

436. Fig. 19,20 At what altitude is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-26?. 13,000 feet. 14,200 feet. 13,600 feet.

437. Fig. 19,20 Which statement is true regarding performance with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-27?. Cimb rate at the MEA is more than 50 ft/min. Service ceiling is below the MEA. Bleed air OFF improves service ceiling by 3,000 feet.

438. Fig. 19,20 At what altitude is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-28?. 1,500 feet above the MEA. 10,400 feet. 11,800 feet.

439. Fig. 19,20 Which statement is true regarding performance with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-29?. Service ceiling is more than 100 feet above the MEA. Bleed air must be OFF to obtain a rate of climb of 50 ft/min at the MEA. Climb is not possible at the MEA.

440. Fig. 19,20 At what altitude is the service ceiling with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-30?. 9,600 feet. 13,200 feet. 2,100 feet above the MEA.

441. Fig. 21 to 25 What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-31?. 1 hour 11 minutes. 1 hour 17 minutes. 1 hour 19 minutes.

442. Fig. 21 to 25 What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-32?. 1 hour 13 minutes. 1 hour 15 minutes. 1 hour 20 minutes.

443. Fig. 21 to 25 What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-33?. 1 hour 50 minutes. 1 hour 36 minutes. 1 hour 46 minutes.

444. Fig. 21-25 What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-34?. 1 hour 6 minutes. 1 hour 3 minutes. 1 hour 11 minutes.

445. Fig. 21 to 25 What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-35?. 1 hour 6 minutes. 1 hour 8 minutes. 1 hour 10 minutes.

446. Fig. 21 to 25 What is the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-31?. 812 pounds. 749 pounds. 870 pounds.

447. Fig. 21 to 25 What is the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-32?. 1,028 pounds. 896 pounds. 977 pounds.

448. Fig. 21 to 25 What is the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-33?. 1,165 pounds. 1,373 pounds. 976 pounds.

449. Fig. 21 to 25 What is the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-34?. 668 pounds. 718 pounds. 737 pounds.

450. Fig. 21 to 25 What is the fuel consumption during the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-35?. 900 pounds. 1,030 pounds. 954 pounds.

451. Fig. 26 What are the time and distance to descend from 18,000 feet to 2,500 feet?. 10.3 minutes, 39 NM. 9.8 minutes, 33 NM. 10.0 minutes, 36 NM.

452. Fig. 26 What are the distance and fuel consumption to descend from 22,000 feet to 4,500 feet?. 44 NAM, 117 pounds. 48 NAM, 112 pounds. 56 NAM, 125 pounds.

453. Fig. 26 What are the time and distance to descend from 16,500 feet to 3,500 feet?. 9.3 minutes, 37 NAM. 9.1 minutes, 35 NAM. 8.7 minutes, 33 NAM.

454. Fig. 26 What are the distance and fuel consumption to descend from 13,500 feet to 1,500 feet?. 30 NAM, 87 pounds. 29 NAM, 80 pounds. 38 NAM, 100 pounds.

455. Fig. 26 What are the time and distance to descend from 23,000 feet to 600 feet with an average 15-knot headwind?. 14.2 minutes, 50 NAM. 14.6 minutes, 56 NAM. 14.9 minutes, 59 NAM.

456. Fig. 27/28 What is the landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-36?. 1,900 feet. 1,625 feet. 950 feet.

457. Fig. 27,28 What are the approach speed and ground roll when landing under Operating Conditions B-36?. 113 knots and 950 feet. 113 knots and 1,950 feet. 112 knots and 900 feet.

458. Fig. 27,28 What is the remaining runway length when stopped after landing over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-37?. 2,500 feet. 2,000 feet. 2,600 feet.

459. Fig. 27,28 What are the approach speed and ground roll when landing under Operating Conditions B-37?. 108 knots and 1,400 feet. 109 knots and 900 feet. 107 knots and 1,350 feet.

460. Fig. 27/28 What is the landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-38?. 1,850 feet. 1,700 feet. 1,800 feet.

461. Fig. 27,28 What is the total runway used when touchdown is at the 1,000 foot marker for Operating Conditions B-38?. 2,000 feet. 1,700 feet. 1,800 feet.

462.Fig. 27,28 What is the remaining runway length when stopped after landing over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-39?. 2,300 feet. 2,400 feet. 2,500 feet.

463. Fig. 27,28 What are the approach speed and ground roll when landing under Operating Conditions B-39?. 111 knots and 1,550 feet. 110 knots and 1,400 feet. 109 knots and 1,300 feet.

464. Fig. 27,28 What is the landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-40?. 1,500 feet. 1,750 feet. 1,650 feet.

465. What are V1 and Vr speeds for Operating Conditions A-1? (See figures 45, 46, and 47). V1 123.1 knots; Vr 125.2 knots. V1 120.5 knots; Vr 123.5 knots. V1 122.3 knots; Vr 124.1 knots.

466. What are V1 and Vr speeds for Operating Conditions A-2? (See figures 45, 46, and 47). V1 129.7 knots; Vr 134.0 knots. V1 127.2 knots; Vr 133.2 knots. V1 127.4 knots; Vr 133.6 knots.

467. What are V1 and Vr speeds for Operating Conditions A-3? (See figures 45, 46, and 47). V1 136.8 knots; 141.8 knots. V1 134.8 knots; 139.0 knots. V1 133.5 knots; 141.0 knots.

468. What are V1 and Vr speeds for Operating Conditions A-4? (See figures 45, 46, and 47). V1 128.0 knots; Vr 130.5 knots. V1 129.9 knots; Vr 133.4 knots. V1 128.6 knots; Vr 131.1 knots.

469. What are V1 and Vr speeds for Operating Conditions A-5? (See figures 45, 46, and 47). V1 110.4 knots; Vr 110.9 knots. V1 109.6 knots; Vr 112.7 knots. V1 106.4 knots; Vr 106.4 knots.

470. What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-1? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 104.0 NM. 99.2 NM. 109.7 NM.

471. What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-2? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 85.8 NM. 87.8 NM. 79.4 NM.

472. What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-3? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 86.4 NM. 84.2 NM. 85.1 NM.

473. What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-4? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 58.4 NM. 61.4 NM. 60.3 NM.

474. What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-5? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 68.0 NM. 73.9 NM. 66.4 NM.

475. What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-1? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 81,600 pounds. 81,400 pounds. 81,550 pounds.

476. What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-2? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 82,775 pounds. 83,650 pounds. 83,800 pounds.

477. What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-3? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 75,750 pounds. 75,900 pounds. 76,100 pounds.

478. What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-4? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 86,150 pounds. 86,260 pounds. 86,450 pounds.

479. What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions W-5? (Refer to Figures 48, 49, and 50). 89,900 pounds. 90,000 pounds. 90,100 pounds.

480. Fig. 51 - 52 What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-1?. 30 minutes. 44 minutes. 29 minutes.

481. Fig. 51,52 What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-2?. 36 minutes. 55 minutes. 40 minutes.

482. Fig. 51,52 What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-3?. 1 hour. 1 hour 15 minutes. 1 hour 24 minutes.

483. Fig. 51,52 What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-4?. 35 minutes. 19 minutes. 20 minutes.

484. Fig. 51,52 What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-5?. 1 hour 3 minutes. 48 minutes. 55 minutes.

485. Fig. 51,52 What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-1?. 79,000 pounds. 83,600 pounds. 81,500 pounds.

486. Fig. 51,52 What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-2?. 65,200 pounds. 65,800 pounds. 69,600 pounds.

487. Fig. 51,52 What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-3?. 80,300 pounds. 85,400 pounds. 77,700 pounds.

488. Fig. 51,52 What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-4?. 73,200 pounds. 74,190 pounds. 73,500 pounds.

489. Fig. 51,52 What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-5?. 78,600 pounds. 77,000 pounds. 76,300 pounds.

490. What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-1? (See Figures 53, 54, and 55). 2.04. 2.01. 2.035.

491. What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-2? (See Figures 53, 54, and 55). 2.19. 2.18. 2.16.

492. What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-3? (See Figures 53, 54, and 55). 2.01. 2.083. 2.04.

493. What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-4? (See Figures 53, 54, and 55). 2.06. 2.105. 2.11.

494. What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-5? (See Figures 53, 54, and 55). 1.98. 1.95. 1.96.

495. What is the takeoff safety speed for Operating Conditions R-1? (See figures 53, 54, and 55). 128 knots. 121 knots. 133 knots.

496. What is the rotation speed for Operating Conditions R-2? (See figures 53, 54, and 55). 147 knots. 152 knots. 146 knots.

497. What are V1, Vr, and V2 speeds for Operating Conditions R-3? (See figures 53, 54, and 55). 143, 143, and 147 knots. 138, 138, and 142 knots. 136, 138, and 143 knots.

498. What are critical engine failure and takeoff safety speeds for Operating Conditions R-4? (See figures 53, 54, and 55). 131 and 133 knots. 123 and 134 knots. 122 and 130 knots.

499. What are rotation and V2 bug speeds for Operating Conditions R-5? (See figures 53, 54, and 55). 138 and 143 knots. 136 and 138 knots. 134 and 141 knots.

500. What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-1? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 145 NM. 137 NM. 134 NM.

501. What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-2? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 84 NM. 65 NM. 69 NM.

502. What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-3? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 95 NM. 79 NM. 57 NM.

503. What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-4? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 63 NM. 53 NM. 65 NM.

504. What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-5? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 70 NM. 47 NM. 61 NM.

505. How much fuel is burned during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-1? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 4,100 pounds. 3,600 pounds. 4,000 pounds.

506. How much fuel is burned during en route climb for Operating Conditions V-2? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 2,250 pounds. 2,600 pounds. 2,400 pounds.

507. What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-3? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 82,100 pounds. 82,500 pounds. 82,200 pounds.

508. What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-4? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 102,900 pounds. 103,100 pounds. 102,600 pounds.

509. What is the aircraft weight at the top of climb for Operating Conditions V-5? (Refer to Figures 56, 57, and 58). 73,000 pounds. 72,900 pounds. 72,800 pounds.

510. What is the maximum climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-1? (See Figures 59 and 60). 1.82. 1.96. 2.04.

511. What is the maximum climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-2? (See Figures 59 and 60). 2.10. 1.99. 2.02.

512. What is the maximum climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-3? (See Figures 59 and 60). 2.11. 2.02. 1.90.

513. What is the maximum climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-4? (See Figures 59 and 60). 2.20. 2.07. 2.06.

514. What is the maximum climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-5? (See Figures 59 and 60). 2.00. 2.04. 1.96.

515. Fig. 61,62 What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-1?. 4 hours 5 minutes. 4 hours 15 minutes. 4 hours.

516. Fig. 61,62 What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-2?. 5 hours 5 minutes. 6 hours 15 minutes. 5 hours 55 minutes.

517. Fig. 61,62 What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-3?. 4 hours 15 minutes. 3 hours 40 minutes. 4 hours.

518. Fig. 61,62 What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-4?. 6 hours 50 minutes. 5 hours 45 minutes. 5 hours 30 minutes.

519. Fig. 61,62 What is the trip time for Operating Conditions X-5?. 2 hours 55 minutes. 3 hours 10 minutes. 2 hours 50 minutes.

520. Fig. 61,62 What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-1?. 25,000 pounds. 26,000 pounds. 24,000 pounds.

521. Fig.61,62 What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-2?. 33,000 pounds. 28,000 pounds. 35,000 pounds.

522. Fig. 61,62 What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-3?. 36,000 pounds. 34,500 pounds. 33,000 pounds.

523. Fig. 61,62 What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-4?. 33,000 pounds. 31,500 pounds. 34,000 pounds.

524. Fig. 61,62 What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-5?. 15,000 pounds. 20,000 pounds. 19,000 pounds.

525. Fig. 63,64 What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions Q-1?. 82.4 percent. 84.0 percent. 84.8 percent.

526. Fig. 63,64 What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions Q-2?. 78.2 percent. 75.2 percent. 76.7 percent.

527. What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions Q-3?. 77.8 percent. 82.6 percent. 84.2 percent.

528. Fig. 63,64 What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions Q-4?. 76.8 percent. 75.4 percent. 74.0 percent.

529. Fig. 66,67 What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-1?. 58.1 minutes. 51.9 minutes. 54.7 minutes.

530. Fig. 66,67 What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-2?. 1 hour 35 minutes. 1 hour 52 minutes. 1 hour 46 minutes.

531. Fig. 66,67 What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-4?. 48.3 minutes. 50.7 minutes. 51.3 minutes.

532. Fig. 66,67 What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-5?. 1 hour 11 minutes. 56 minutes. 62 minutes.

533. Fig. 66,67 What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-1?. 5,230 pounds. 5,970 pounds. 5,550 pounds.

534. Fig. 66,67 What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-2?. 10,270 pounds. 9,660 pounds. 10,165 pounds.

535. Fig. 66,67 What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-3?. 12,300 pounds. 11,300 pounds. 13,900 pounds.

536. Fig. 66,67 What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-4?. 4,950 pounds. 5,380 pounds. 5,230 pounds.

537. Fig.66,67 What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-5?. 6,250 pounds. 5,380 pounds. 7,120 pounds.

538. Fig, 68,69 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-1?. 221 knots and 1.83 EPR. 223 knots and 2.01 EPR. 217 knots and 1.81 EPR.

539. Fig. 68,69 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-2?. 210 knots and 1.57 EPR. 210 knots and 1.515 EPR. 210 knots and 1.45 EPR.

540. Fig, 68,69 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-3?. 217 knots and 1.50 EPR. 215 knots and 1.44 EPR. 216 knots and 1.40 EPR.

541. Fig. 68,69 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-4?. 223 knots and 1.33 EPR. 225 knots and 1.33 EPR. 220 knots and 1.28 EPR.

542. Fig. 68,69 What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-5?. 219 knots and 1.28 EPR. 214 knots and 1.26 EPR. 218 knots and 1.27 EPR.

543. Fig. 68,69 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-1?. 1,625 pounds. 1,950 pounds. 2,440 pounds.

544. Fig. 68,69 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-2?. 2,250 pounds. 2,500 pounds. 3,000 pounds.

545. Fig. 68,69 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-3?. 2,940 pounds. 2,520 pounds. 3,250 pounds.

546. Fig.68,69 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-4?. 2,870 pounds. 2,230 pounds. 1,440 pounds.

547. Fig. 68,69 What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-5?. 2,950 pounds. 2,870 pounds. 2,400 pounds.

548. Fig. 70 How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 144,500 pounds? Initial weight ........................................................ 180,500 lb Zero fuel weight .......................................... 13 minutes. 15 minutes. 16 minutes.

549. FigHow many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 25,000 pounds? Initial weight ........................................................ 179,500 lb Zero fuel weight ............................................... 10 minutes. 9 minutes. 8 minutes.

550. Fig.70 How many minutes of dump time is required to reach a weight of 151,500 pounds? Initial weight ........................................................ 181,500 lb Zero fuel weight ..................... 15 minutes. 14 minutes. 13 minutes.

551. Fig. 70 How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 16,000 pounds? Initial weight ........................................................ 175,500 lb Zero fuel weight .............. 9 minutes. 10 minutes. 8 minutes.

552. Fig. 71,72 What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-1?. 19,400 feet. 18,000 feet. 20,200 feet.

553. Fig. 71,72 What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-2?. 14,700 feet. 17,500 feet. 18,300 feet.

554. Fig. 71,72 What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-3?. 22,200 feet. 19,800 feet. 21,600 feet.

555. Fig. 71,72 What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-4?. 27,900 feet. 22,200 feet. 24,400 feet.

556. Fig. 71,72 What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-5?. 8,800 feet. 9,600 feet. 13,000 feet.

557. Fig. 73,75 What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-1?. 2.01 EPR. 2.03 EPR. 2.04 EPR.

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