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Zeta 6

COMENTARIOS ESTADÍSTICAS RÉCORDS
REALIZAR TEST
Título del test:
Zeta 6

Descripción:
Test VV

Autor:
Z
(Otros tests del mismo autor)

Fecha de Creación:
23/05/2022

Categoría:
Otros

Número preguntas: 198
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Temario:
(8003) Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? Operations Specifications. Operating Certificate. Dispatch Release.
(8131) A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified? Notification is not required, if the certificate holder has a security coordinator. A minimum of 1 hour. A minimum of 2 hours.
(8132) When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the escort? They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft. They shall be boarded after all other passengers board, and deplaned before all the other passengers leave the aircraft. They shall board and depart before the other passengers.
(8136) Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel? The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverages to the person in custody or the law enforcement escort. *b. No more No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts. The person in custody must be seated between the escort and the aisle.
(8137) When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage? The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the baggage remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command. The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember.
(8138) What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121? All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load stresses. All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor structure of the airplane. Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.
(8139) What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant.
(8144) The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing. taxiing, takeoff, and landing. takeoff, cruise, and landing.
(8153) When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat? When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age. Only during the en route flight. During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight.
(8155) If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen. shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.
(8156) If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask? FL 200. FL 300. FL 250.
(8157) If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed? For taxi, takeoff, and landing. Only for takeoff and landing. During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.
(8158) If there is a required emergency exit located in the flight crew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be unlocked during takeoff and landing. locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. latched open during takeoff and landing.
(8159) Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger compartment. be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations.
(8160) Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger-carrying airplane? The most forward location in the passenger cabin. In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. The most rearward location in the passenger cabin.
(8161) How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried? Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin.
(8162) How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried? Two; one located near or accessible to the flightcrew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center in of the passenger cabin. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.
(8163) In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flightcrew is encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished. required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures. required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished.
(8164) Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England? A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required liferaft. A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival-type emergency locator transmitter for each required liferaft.
(8165) What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations? A portable survival emergency locator transmitter for each liferaft. A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life preserver. A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.
(8166) Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each aircraft occupant. seat on the aircraft. passenger seat, plus 10 percent.
(8167) For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for all of the passengers, plus 10 percent. all aircraft occupants. all passenger seats.
(8168) When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft? One for each passenger seat. One for each passenger, plus 10 percent. One for each occupant of the aircraft.
(8169) Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored within easy reach of each passenger. under each occupant seat. within easy reach of each seated occupant.
(8170) An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? Survival kit for each passenger. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.
(8171) An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. Survival kit for each passenger. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.
(8172) An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. Survival kit for each passenger.
(8173) How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet? A minimum of 2-hours' supply. Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.
(8174) What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for each passengers for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude. 30 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.
(8175) Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net. must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.
(8176) Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121? Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard. Number of passenger cabin occupants. Airplane passenger seating accommodations.
(8177) Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane? All emergency equipment, must be readily accessible to the passengers. Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment. Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.
(8178) A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane? A large airplane. A turbojet airplane. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.
(8179) An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it has a seating capacity of 19 passengers. has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. weighs more than 12,500 pounds.
(8180) What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons? Two. Four. Three.
(8181) A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above FL 200. FL 240. FL 250.
(8182) The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of 10,000 feet within 4 minutes. 14,000 feet within 4 minutes. 12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker.
(8183) Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes of FL 260. of FL 250. above FL 250.
(8184) A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within immediate reach. 5 seconds. 10 seconds. 15 seconds.
(8185) For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. 10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours. each passenger for 30 minutes.
(8186) For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes? 15,000 feet. 16,000 feet. 14,000 feet.
(8187) What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station? FL410. FL250. Above FL410.
(8188) If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties? The second in command only. Any flight crewmember, if qualified. Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.
(8189) Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in 14 CFR Part 121 operations? If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines. If required by the airplane's type certificate.
(8190) When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer? 80,000 pounds. more than 80,000 pounds. 300,000 pounds.
(8191) The 'age 65 rule' of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to any required pilot crewmember. any flight crewmember. the pilot in command only.
(8192) An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? Four. Three. Two.
(8193) When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? Five. Four. Three.
(8198) Which 14 CFR Part 121 required document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? Airplane Flight Manual. Certificate holder's manual. Pilot's Emergency Procedures Handbook.
(8200) The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the pilot in command. air carrier's chief pilot. certificate holder.
(8201) What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard? Five. Four. Three.
(8202) What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? Seven. Six. Five.
(8204) The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above FL 180. FL 200. FL 250.
(8205) A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.
(8207) A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.
(8208) Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience? At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach. At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.
(8209) What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience? At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. At least one full stop landing must be made. At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder.
(8210) What are the line check requirements for a domestic air carrier pilot in command under 60 years of age? The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports. The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly.
(8211) You are on the last day of a four day trip and haven't slept well. What is a warning sign that you are fatigued? Improved dexterity. Head bobbing. Mental acuteness.
(8212) An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated, at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties. one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.
(8213) When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.
(8214) If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2010 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 2012, the latter check is considered to have been taken in November 2010. December 2011. January 2011.
(8215) The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is upgrade training. transition training. initial training.
(8216) A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100), may serve as pilot-in-command upon completing which training program? Upgrade training. Recurrent training. Initial training.
(8217) The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is difference training. transition training. upgrade training.
(8218) How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every 6 calendar months. 12 calendar months. 24 calendar months.
(8219) For a short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed 12 hours. 14 hours. 16 hours.
(8220) Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to 180 hours in any 28 consecutive days. 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
(8221) "Window of circadian low" means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between 0100-0500. 1200-0459. 0200-0559.
If the crew van breaks down en route to the rest facility and delays arrival for nearly 2 hours, does the flightcrew member need to notify the certificate holder? No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 9 hours of uninterrupted rest. No, as long as the crew member has the opportunity for 8 hours rest. Yes, if the flightcrew member does not have the opportunity for 10 hours of uninterrupted hours free from duty.
(8223) "Airport standby reserve" means a specified 15-hour period of reserve in close proximity of assignment being available for flight duty assignments in less than 2 hours. being within 90 minutes of the airport and available for immediate flight duty assignments of 8 hours duration. a defined duty period during which a flight crewmember is required by the certificate holder to be available for possible assignment.
(8224) No flightcrew member may accept an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flight crew member is given 10 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. 12 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period. 8 consecutive hours of rest immediately before beginning a flight duty period or a reserve period.
(8225) Which announcement must be made if the seat belt sign will be turned off during flight? Clearly explain the location of the fire extinguishers and emergency exits. Passenger should keep their seat belts fastened while seated. Passengers are free to leave their seats once the seat belt sign is turned off.
(8226) What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport? Cargo and passenger distribution information. Copy of the flight plan. Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.
(8227) How does deadhead transportation, going to or from a duty assignment, affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots. considered part of the rest period for flight engineers and navigators. not considered to be part of a rest period.
(8228) Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 180 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. 170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
(8229) You are a pilot operating under 14 CFR Part 121 and are in a required rest period. When can you be contacted about your next day duty assignment? At any time during your required rest period. At the end of your required rest period. No earlier than 1 hour before the end of your required rest period.
(8231) "Rest period" means an 8-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. a 12-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.
(8232) A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? Not more than 1 hour. Not more than 2 hours. More than 6 hours.
(8233) If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within 7 days. 5 days. 48 hours.
(8234) When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.
(8235) Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a key to the flight deck door. certificate holder's manual. flashlight in good working order.
(8236) If an engine's rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the appropriate ground radio station. nearest FAA district office. operations manager (or director of operations).
(8237) If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
(8238) "Theater" means a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 90 degrees longitude. a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 75 degrees longitude. a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degrees longitude.
(8240) When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within 10 days after the deviation. 10 days after returning home. 10 days after returning to home base.
(8241) What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit.
(8243) The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the pilot in command and chief pilot. pilot in command and director of operations. pilot in command and the flight follower.
(8244) The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. in the interest of safety. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB.
(8245) If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. comply with the company's lost aircraft plan. phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.
(8246) Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? Pilot in command. Dispatcher. Person who declares the emergency.
(8259) A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is 2005Z. 1905Z. 0005Z.
(8260) A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is 1945Z. 1915Z. 1845Z.
(8266) When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? 1922Z. 1952Z. 0022Z.
(8267) If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? 1945Z. 2015Z. 0045Z.
(8268) The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.
(8269) The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.
(8270) What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to the alternate. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
(8271) For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. c. back to the departure airport.
(8272) An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous United States, if enough fuel is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane.
(8273) The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. 2 hours at the normal cruising fuel consumption rate.
(8274) Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane? 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less. 45 minutes at holding altitude. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.
(8275) The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is 3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
(8276) A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.
(8277) The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the 48 contiguous United States is 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. the fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
(8280) By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? The aircraft dispatcher. Air route traffic control center. Director of operations.
(8281) Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations or flight follower. Pilot in command.
(8282) During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? Aircraft dispatcher. Pilot in command. Director of operations or flight follower.
(8283) Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAMs? Any company dispatch facility. Notices To Airmen publication. Chart Supplements U.S. (previously Airport/Facility Directory).
(8284) Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? Company meteorologist. Aircraft dispatcher. Director of operations.
(8285) Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has logged 90 hours' flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR parts 91 and 121. made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months. logged 100 hours' flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month.
(8286) Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight? Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release. Dispatch release and weight and balance release. Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.
(8287) How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? 1 month. 3 months. 12 months.
(8288) A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least 3 months. 6 months. 30 days.
(8289) When a pilot's flight time consists of 80 hours' pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 and 1. Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile. Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 mile.
(8290) Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane. Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight.
(8291) The certificated air carrier and operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are supplemental and commercial. supplemental and domestic. flag and commercial.
(8292) What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.
(8293) What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation. Minimum fuel supply and trip number. Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft.
(8294) A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. trip number and weight and balance data. weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.
(8295) The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the weather reports and forecasts. names of all crewmembers. minimum fuel supply.
(8296) Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release. Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan.
(8317) What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a 'serious injury'? 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.
(8318) Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage? Immediately. 7 calendar days. 10 days.
(8319) Which of the following constitutes 'substantial damage' according to NTSB Part 830? Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires. Damage to wingtips (or rotor blades, in the case of a helicopter). Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement.
(8320) Which of the following meets the requirements of a 'serious injury' as defined by the NTSB? A simple fracture of the nose or other extremity. An injury which caused severe tendon damage. First-degree burns over 5 percent of the body.
(8321) Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB? Aircraft colliding on the ground. Flight control system malfunction. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $10,000.
(8322) Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB? 3 days. 7 days. 10 days.
(8323) When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB? Within 7 days. Within 10 days. Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.
(8429) An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an: destination airport. provisional airport. alternate airport.
(8430) A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport. having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies). providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.
(8706) Fatigue can be evident in others if they talk more than usual. yawn excessively. are overly helpful.
(8707) You did not get a good night's rest and have been on duty for several hours. A sign you may be fatigued is improved dexterity. decreased short term memory. mental acuteness.
(8708) Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a seven consecutive day period? 48. 52. 32.
(8709) Under 14 CFR 121, a required flightcrew member of an unaugmented two-pilot flag operation may not exceed how many hours duty in a one calendar month period? 120. 100. 80.
(8724) What is the minimum rest period required before a flight or reserve duty period? 8 consecutive hours rest. 10 consecutive hours rest. 12 consecutive hours rest.
(8725) Bird strikes in flight will be reported to the nearest state of federal wildlife office on company letterhead. FAA on an FAA form 5200-7. nearest FSS via telephone.
(8767) A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued an Air Carrier Certificate. a Supplemental Air Carrier Certificate. an Operating Certificate.
(8768) The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the certificate holder's operations specifications. application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate.
(9325) Which is a definition of the term 'crewmember'? Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.
(9326) "Operational control" of a flight refers to the specific duties of any required crewmember. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft.
(9328) A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes? Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747. ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737. ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.
(9329) A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised? ATP - B-727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9. ATP - B-727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC 3. ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.
(9330) In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? 6 hours. 8 hours. 10 hours.
(9331) The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period. 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
(9332) How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division? No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
(9333) An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate. not required to have a medical certificate. required to have a first-class medical certificate.
(9334) What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization? Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown manually to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.
(9335) An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is required to have a first-class medical certificate. required to have a second-class medical certificate. not required to have a medical certificate.
(9339) A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument competency check specified in 14 CFR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made? 12 months. 90 days. 6 months.
(9340) An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs a first-class medical certificate. at least a current third-class medical certificate. a second-class medical certificate.
(9342) What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots? All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments. One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan. One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.
(9343) When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is required to have at least a third-class medical certificate. is not required to have a medical certificate. required to have a first-class medical certificate.
(9344) To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown. six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft. six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.
(9345) To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required? Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH. Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.
(9346) When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed? When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing. When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months. 120 days after issue or renewal.
(9347) A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.
(9348) What is the lowest decision height for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? 100 feet AGL. 150 feet AGL. 200 feet AGL.
(9349) When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is required to have a least a current third-class medical certificate. required to have a current first-class medical certificate. not required to hold a medical certificate.
(9350) Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot-in-command required to hold a type rating? When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.
(9351) When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid? 30 days. 60 days. 90 days.
(9379) During an emergency, a pilot-in-command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report? To the manager of the General Aviation District Office within 10 days. To the manager of the facility in control within 10 days. Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager.
(9388) When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated? When priority has been given. Anytime an emergency occurs. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
(9714) Each flightcrew member must report in uniform and properly prepared to accomplish all assignments. to the airport on time and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duty. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his duty.
(9745) No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved operator's manual available. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in part 135 section 135.19(b).
(9746) Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS preflight check must be conducted by a certified A&P and signed off in the logbook. pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signatory Person. pre-departure check must be signed off by an A&P or the PIC for the flight.
(9753) When icing is detected, particularly while operating an aircraft without deicing equipment, the pilot should fly to an area with liquid precipitation. fly to a lower altitude. leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing.
(9756) If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped with deicing equipment, the pilot should first confirm ice with the ice light prior to deploying the pneumatic boots. operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice. operate the pneumatic deicing system once to allow time for the ice removal.
(9761) What is considered "north polar"? north of 60 degrees N latitude. north of 68 degrees N latitude. north of 78 degrees N latitude.
(9762) What is considered "south polar"? south of 60 degrees S latitude. south of 68 degrees S latitude. south of 78 degrees S latitude.
(9763) What is meant by "sterile cockpit"? All preflight checks are complete and the aircraft is ready for engine starting. Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities during critical phases of flight. Crewmembers are seated and buckled at their required stations.
(9746.1) ETOPS entry point means the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 200 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having more than two engines. the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than 90 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines.
(9746.2) For flight planning, a designated ETOPS alternate airport for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 3, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO category 4, unless the airport's RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.
(9782) All 14 CFR Part 139 airports must report accident and incident data annually. noise complaint statistics for each departure procedure or runway. declared distances for each runway.
(9329.1) The lowest CAT II minimums are DH 100 and RVR 1200. DH 150 and RVR 1600. DH 50 and RVR 1200.
(9837) "Physiological night's rest" means 9 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember's home base. 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember's home base. 12 hours of rest that encompasses any continuous 8 hour period for uninterrupted or disturbed rest.
(9838) In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew member must report on time, in uniform, and properly prepared to accomplish all assigned duties. to the airport on time, after the designated rest period and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duties. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties.
(9839) Flightcrew members must receive fatigue education and awareness training with all required air carrier dispatcher and every flightcrew member training activity. annually for flightcrew members and every 24 months for dispatchers, flightcrew member schedulers, and operational control individuals. annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals and flightcrew members and dispatchers.
(9840) In an airplane assigned with a minimum flight crew of two, your flight time may not exceed 9 hours if assigned to report at 0330. 9 hours if assigned to report at 0500. 9 hours if assigned to report at 2030.
(9841) For unaugmented flightcrew operations, your maximum flight duty period limit is 13 hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight segments. 13 hours if assigned to report at 2030 for 3 flight segments. 10.5 hours if assigned to report at 1730 for 6 flight segments.
(9842) In an airplane with an augmented crew of three flightcrew members assigned, the maximum flight duty period is 17 hours if assigned to report at 1200 with a Class 3 rest facility available. 16 hours if assigned to report at 0630 with a Class 1 rest facility available. 15 hours if assigned to report at 1730 with a Class 2 rest facility available.
(9843) The time spent resting during unaugmented operations will not be counted towards the flight duty period limitation if the rest period is at least 3 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. 4 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. 4 hours long which can include transportation to suitable accommodations.
(9844) Notification of the rest opportunity period during unaugmented operations, must be given before the next to last flight segment. given before the beginning of the flight duty period. provided no later than after the first flight segment offered after the first flight segment is completed.
(9845) If the augmented flightcrew member is not acclimated, the maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part 117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by 30 minutes. flight duty period assignment must be reduced 15 minutes by each 15 degrees of longitude difference from the previous rest location. minimum rest period must be extended by 3 hours.
(9846) The flight duty period may be extended due to unforeseen circumstances before takeoff by as much as 2 hours. 1 hour. 30 minutes.
(9847) After takeoff, unforeseen circumstances arise. In this case, the flight duty period may be extended by as much as 2 hours. necessary to reach the closest suitable alternate crew base airport. necessary to land at the next destination airport or alternate airport.
(9848) For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in airport/standby reserve time is not part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period. part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period. part of the flightcrew member's flight duty period after being alerted for flight assignment.
(9849) Limiting flight time for all flightcrew members will include instruction flight hours, commercial flying, and flying for any certificate holder. any flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager. flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager and any other commercial flight time.
(9850) Flightcrew member's flight duty periods are limited to 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. 70 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. 60 hours in any 7 days.
(9851) A flightcrew member must be given a rest period before beginning any reserve or flight duty period of 24 consecutive hours free from any duty in the past 7 consecutive calendar days. 36 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours. 30 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours.
(9852) No flightcrew member may accept an assignment without scheduled rest opportunities for more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low. more than 4 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low in a 168 hour period. consecutive nighttime flights beginning after 0001 hours local home base time.
(9836) Pilots and/or flight crew members involved in near midair collision (NMAC) occurrences are urged to report each incident immediately by cell phone to the nearest Flight Standards District Office, as this is an emergency. to local law enforcement. by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.
(9847.1) "Unforeseen operational circumstance" means an unplanned event of insufficient duration to allow for adjustments to schedules. unforecast weather and expected ATC delays. event of sufficient duration to create increased flight times for the certificate holder's operation.
(9329.2) The lowest authorized ILS minimums associated with CAT II approaches are Decision Height (DH) 200 feet and Runway Visual Range (RVR) 2,400 feet (with touchdown zone and centerline lighting, RVR 1800 feet), DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet. No DH or DH below 50 feet and RVR less than 700 feet but not less than 150 feet.
(9342.1) An example of air carrier experience a pilot may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as PIC in Part 121 is flight time as an SIC in Part 121 operations. in Part 91, subpart K operations. in Part 135 operations.
(9342.2) The holder of an ATP certificate with restricted privileges or an ATP certificate who also holds an aircraft type rating for the aircraft to be flown may act as a PIC for a Part 121 supplemental air carrier. a PIC for a Part 121 air carrier with 500 hours as a Part 121 SIC. an SIC for a Part 121 air carrier.
(9350.1) The second in command of an aircraft in domestic operation under 14 CFR 121 must hold an airline transport pilot certificate and a first class medical. an airline transport pilot certificate with an appropriate aircraft type rating. a commercial pilot certificate with instrument rating, a second-class medical, and a type rating appropriate for the aircraft being flown.
(9847.2) For passenger operations under Part 121, a flightcrew member may exceed maximum flight time limitations if immediately followed by 11 hours of rest. unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff. known ATC delays do not exceed 30 minutes.
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