zeus inter a32

Each Control Unit (CU) regulates the heating temperature of the associated drain mast tube between ____________. a) 0°C (32°F) to 6°C (43°F). b) 6°C (43°F) to 10°C (50°F). c) 10°C (50°F) to 15°C (59°F). d) 15°C (59°F) to 20°C (68°F).

The system status is sent to the Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS) for indication on the ____________. a) pilot's display. b) maintenance logbook. c) Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). d) Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU).

If there is a failure of the Heater (HTR) or CU, a ____________ light is illuminated on the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). a) green. b) red. c) CAUTion. d) maintenance.

The drain mast data is stored in the ________. a) aircraft's central server. b) maintenance logbook. c) Centralized Fault Display Interface Unit (CFDIU). d) Flight Attendant Panel (FAP.

To perform a complete test of the drain mast system, two tests must be carried out, one from the MCDU, and the second one on each ____________. a) flight attendant. b) maintenance technician. c) Control Unit (CU). d) aircraft.

How are the CLeaR P/Bs used in response to a system failure?. They turn off the power to the Display Units (DUs). They release the Fault lights on the hydraulic panel. They indicate the phase of the flight. They clear the warnings and cautions.

What are the primary parameters displayed in the upper area of the Engine/Warning Display (EWD)?. Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR). Slat/flap position. Fuel On Board (FOB). All of above.

The Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring (ECAM) system displays weather information. True. False.

In normal operation, DMC 1 drives the Captain's Primary Flight Display (PFD), while DMC 2 drives the First Officer's PFD. True. False.

The CLeaR P/Bs are used to activate the warnings and cautions. True. False.

The STATUS REMINDER and RECALL FUNCTION reminds the crew of cleared warnings. True. False.

The System Data Acquisition Concentrators (SDACs) send data to the Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) displays. True. False.

Level 3 alerts correspond to an emergency configuration where corrective or palliative action must be taken by the crew __. immediately. without any action. after a crew meeting. during routine maintenance.

A primary failure is a failure of an equipment or system causing the loss of __________ equipment. secondary. other. independent. advisory.

In ECAM Normal Dual Display mode, the flashing ADV symbol indicates multiple advisories on different pages or a failure __________. on the currently displayed page. detected by the FWC. requiring immediate action. in the ECP.

In ECAM MONO Display mode, when a value drifts from its normal range, a white ADV message flashes in the center of the EWD to attract crew __________. monitoring. attention. routine maintenance. emergency response.

Level 3 warnings are associated with a Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC), warning messages on Liquid Crystal Display (LCD), and a flashing __________. caution light. advisory light. caution message. MASTER WARNing light.

What are the two primary functions of the Flight Data Interface and Management Unit (FDIMU)?. Flight Data Interface Unit (FDIU) and Data Management Unit (DMU). Data Loading Selector (DLS) and Multipurpose Disk Drive Unit (MDDU). Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR) and Quick Access Recorder (QAR). Linear Accelerometer (LA) and System Data Acquisition Concentrator (SDAC).

What does the FDIU-part of the FDIMU do with the input parameters?. Transmits them to the Digital AIDS Recorder (DAR). Converts, compares, and checks them. Records them in data frames. Routes them to the Data Loading Routing Box (DLRB).

When does the FDIU-part check the integrity of the mandatory parameters during a flight?. Continuously throughout the flight. After the engines are shut down. Before engine start. Only during maintenance checks.

What is the purpose of the underwater locator beacon on the DFDR?. To activate the DFDR. To provide the location of the recorder in water after an accident. To transmit data to the CFDIU. To control the power interlock circuit.

How long does the DFDR store data?. 24 hours. 48 hours. 25 hours. 72 hours.

What type of data frames are stored in the Quick Access Recorder (QAR)?. Identical to the DFDR data frames. Data frames with additional information. Video data frames. Audio data frames.

What is the purpose of the Data Loading Selector (DLS)?. To select the computer on which data will be loaded. To upload or download data. To stow data disks. To route data between the disk unit and target computer.

The Flight Data Interface and Management Unit (FDIMU) combines two functions: the Flight Data Interface Unit (FDIU) and the ____________. Data Management Unit (DMU). Quick Access Recorder (QAR). System Data Acquisition Concentrator (SDAC. Linear Accelerometer (LA).

The FDIU-part of the FDIMU converts, compares, and checks the input parameters for the Digital Flight Data Recorder (DFDR), optional Quick Access Recorder (QAR), and the Digital AIDS Recorder (DAR). This conversion process is crucial for data ____________. recording. transmission. storage. analysis.

The DFDR stores data for the last ____________ hours, with each data frame containing information from one second of flight. 24. 48. 25. 72.

The Quick Access Recorder (QAR) records the same data parameters as the DFDR but is primarily used for on-ground performance, maintenance, and condition monitoring tasks. It also includes Built-In Test Equipment (BITE) functions to ensure data ____________. accuracy. integrity. encryption. compression.

The LA generates an analog signal, which is then digitalized and sent to the FDIU-part through an ____________ bus. Ethernet. USB. ARINC 429. HDMI.

The Data Loading Selector (DLS) is responsible for selecting the ____________ on which data will be loaded during maintenance processes. computer. technician. disk drive. software.

The Multipurpose Disk Drive Unit (MDDU) is used to upload or download data, and it has a stowage box with a maximum capacity of ____________ data disks. 12https://www.daypo.com/images/disketteno.png. 24. 36. 42.

When does the active LGCIU change in the extension/retraction system?. After each gear cycle. During a DOWN selection. When a failure occurs in the active LGCIU. When the LGCIUs are electrically segregated.

In what conditions is normal braking obtained?. With the parking brake OFF. When gear control lever is set to UP. Without green hydraulic pressure. With A/SKID switch OFF.

When is electrical control for normal braking obtained?. n flight when the gear control lever is set to UP. On the ground by the auto brake system. When the green hydraulic pressure is available. Through the pedals.

What system energizes the alternate brake system in the Airbus A320 family aircraft?. Green hydraulic system. Brake accumulator. Normal brake system. Parking Brake control switch.

When does the ABCU become active in the alternate brake system. When normal brake system is defective. When the A/SKID & N/W STeeRinG switch is OFF. When the green system has low hydraulic pressure. When the BSCU is working properly.

What happens if there is a BSCU failure or low pressure in the hydraulic systems in relation to the anti-skid function?. The pilot must use the triple pressure indicator to control brake pressure. The ABCU sets a minimum limit of 1000 PSI for brake pressure. The anti-skid function is lost, and braking is unavailable. The A/SKID & N/W STeeRinG switch is disabled.

How many full brake pedal applications can be done with the accumulator pressure alone?. 3. 7. Unlimited. 5.

What are the limits for the N/WS angle controlled by the BSCU. Rudder pedals: max 6 degrees; Hand wheels: max 74 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 10 degrees; Hand wheels: max 50 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 5 degrees; Hand wheels: max 80 degrees. Rudder pedals: max 8 degrees; Hand wheels: max 60 degrees.

What does the Brake Temperature Monitoring Unit (BTMU) transmit to the BSCU?. Brake temperature data. Hydraulic pressure. Brake pedal inputs. Brake accumulator pressure.

If a failure occurs in the active LGCIU, the __________ LGCIU becomes active. secondary. standby. duplicate. alternate.

Normal braking is obtained when: - The green hydraulic pressure is available, - The Anti/SKID and Nose/Wheel Steering control switch is in the __________ position, - The Parking Brake control switch is in the OFF position. ON. OFF. standby. alternate.

3. Where are ANN LT TEST AND INTERFACE BOARDS located?. In the cockpit. In the avionics compartment. In the passenger cabin. In the engine room.

4. How many relays supply the ANN LTs when the switch 33LP is in the TEST position?. 1 relay. 2 relays. 4 relays. 10 relays.

5. Where is the COCKPIT ANN LT SWITCH located?. In the avionics compartment. On the overhead control panel. In the cabin. 2000 VU Panel.

6. How are cabin lights controlled in the aircraft?. Through the Cabin Intercommunication Data System. Through the landing gear. Through the cockpit controls. Through the engine system.

7. What is the purpose of DEUs in controlling cabin lights?. To control the engine. To control the cockpit lights. To control the fluorescent lamps. To control the landing gear.

18. How many strobe lights are installed at each wingtip and tail cone?. One strobe light. Two strobe lights. Three strobe lights. Four strobe lights.

19. What does the "STROBE LT OFF" ECAM memo message indicate?. he strobe lights are malfunctioning. The strobe lights are on. The strobe lights are off. The strobe lights are dimming.

20. What triggers the NEOL indication on the strobe light assemblies?. A landing gear malfunction. The strobe lights are on. The strobe lights are off. The strobe lights are near the end of their useful life.

1. What is the purpose of wing and engine scan lights?. To signal to air traffic control. To illuminate the wings and engine air intake. To control the landing gear. To provide light for passengers.

3. The ANN LT TEST AND INTERFACE BOARDS are located in the passenger cabin. True. False.

6 4. The COCKPIT ANN LT SWITCH has only two positions: DIM and BRT. True. False.

5. DEUs control the cabin fluorescent lamps based on signals from the FAP. True. False.

7. How do ring laser gyros measure rotation?. A) By detecting differences in laser beam frequencies. B) By analyzing magnetic field variations. C) By measuring changes in air pressure. D) By tracking GPS satellite positions.

8. What is the primary output of the ring laser gyros?. A) Analog rotation information. B) Digital altitude data. C) Magnetic heading information. D) Inertial velocity measurements.

9. What do the accelerometers in the ADIRUs provide?. A) Linear accelerations. B) Barometric altitude data. C) Air temperature variations. D) Aircraft ground speed.

10. How is the acceleration signal processed in the ADIRUs?. A) Sent to an analog/digital converter. B) Transmitted directly to the MMR units. C) Converted into GPS coordinates. D) Sent to the Weather Radar system.

16. How is the ILS descent axis determined?. A) By the intersection of a Localizer and Glide Slope beam. B) By GPS coordinates. C) By analyzing air pressure variations. D) By the aircraft's altitude.

17. What is the primary function of the ILS (Instrument Landing System)?. A) Supply signals transmitted by ground stations. B) Provide GPS coordinates. C) Measure atmospheric corrections. D) Control air traffic in the vicinity of the airport.

18. How is a descent axis determined in the ILS?. ) By the intersection of a Localizer beam and Glide Slope beam. B) By analyzing the aircraft's altitude. C) By measuring magnetic field variations. D) By tracking GPS satellite positions.

19. What is the primary purpose of the GPS (Global Positioning System). A) Provide accurate navigation information. B) Control air traffic. C) Measure atmospheric pressure variations. D) Transmit signals to ILS ground stations.

20. How is the GPS spatial segment composed in terms of satellite arrangement?. A) 24 satellites in six separate orbital planes. B) 12 satellites in one orbital plane. C) 48 satellites in 12 orbital planes. D) 6 satellites in a single orbital plane.

26. Where are the Multi-mode Receivers (MMR) typically located on the aircraft. A) In the forward avionics bay 90VU. B) In the cockpit dashboard. C) On the wings of the aircraft. D) In the upper fuselage near the GPS antennas.

27. What are the external sensors that provide inputs to the ADIRUs in the ADIRS system?. A) Angle Of Attack (AOA), Total Air Temperature (TAT), and Air Data Module (ADM). B) Static Air Temperature (SAT), International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), and Total Air Temperature (TAT. C) Static ports, Pitot probes, and AOA sensors. D) GPS coordinates, ground speed, and altitude.

3. What are the primary components of the WXR and PWS system?. a. Weather radar transceiver and weather antenna drive. b. Aircraft engines and landing gear. c. Avionics bay and ILS. d. Weather radar transmitter/receiver and dual weather radar control unit.

Why is the crew oxygen system used?. To supply oxygen during normal flight. o supply oxygen during cabin pressurization loss. To supply oxygen during passenger emergencies. To supply oxygen to the cabin attendants.

How is the pressure of the oxygen cylinder indicated to the crew?. By a pressure regulator. By a direct-reading pressure gauge. By a pressure switch. By a low-pressure warning light.

Under what conditions do the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?. When the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet. When the cabin altitude is below 10,000 feet. When a passenger pushes the MASK MANual ON button. When a crew member pushes the MASK MANual ON button.

What happens when the TiMeR RESET pushbutton is pushed in the passenger oxygen system?. The masks retract automatically. The electrical system is rearmed. The passenger address system is activated. The oxygen supply is shut off.

What initiates the chemical generation in the oxygen masks?. Pulling the mask towards the user's face. Pressing the oxygen supply button. Opening the container door. Pushing the ON white light.

How many Crew oxygen bottles the A320 Neo has?. 1. 3. 2. None.

What is the purpose of the tamper seal in the portable oxygen container?. To indicate the oxygen level. To indicate if the PBE is operational. To show if the container is properly sealed. To signal low oxygen pressure.

The oxygen system includes: the crew system,. the passenger system,. the portable system,. all above.

8 The flight crew oxygen system is used if there is a loss of cabin pressurization or ____________ in the cockpit. Fire. Water. Smoke. smoke or dangerous gases.

The high-pressure portable cylinder includes continuous flow type masks and supplies first aid oxygen to. the passengers,. the cargo hold. the overhead bins,. the cabin attendants.

There are two types of chemical generators supplying oxygen for 15 minutes or 22 minutes. True. False.

The Portable Breathing Equipment (PBE) is designed to help crew members and cabin attendants extinguish fires by supplying oxygen. True. False.

How is the engine air bleed pressure pneumatically regulated in the Airbus A320 family of aircraft?. High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV). Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI). Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV). Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs).

When does the HP VLV pneumatically regulate the air supply, and within what pressure range does it operate?. At low engine speed, 8 to 36 psi. At high engine speed, 44 to 85 psi. At idle, 110 to 240 psi. At high altitude, 15,000 ft to 35,000 ft.

What is the primary function of the IP check valve, and when does it come into play?. Protects the IP stage from reverse flow when HP VLV is open. Regulates the pressure downstream from the PRV. Monitors engine fire at 450°C. Controls bleed pressure at high altitude.

Describe the two operating modes of the PRV control solenoid and the conditions under which each is used. Pneumatic mode for reverse flow protection, electrical mode for ENGine BLEED P/B OFF. Pneumatic mode for overpressure, electrical mode for engine fire. Pneumatic mode for engine fire, electrical mode for altitude > 15,000 ft. Pneumatic mode for delta pressure, electrical mode for precooler temperature.

The engine air bleed pressure is pneumatically regulated by the __________ when air is supplied by the HP stage, or by the __________ when the air is supplied by the Intermediate Pressure (IP) stage. High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV), Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV). Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs), Wing Anti-Ice (WAI). Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV), High Pressure (HP) Valve (VLV). Wing Anti-Ice (WAI), Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs).

When does the HP VLV pneumatically regulate the air supply, and within what pressure range does it operate?. At low engine speed, 8 to 36 psi. At high engine speed, 44 to 85 psi. At idle, 110 to 240 psi. At high altitude, 15,000 ft to 35,000 ft.

What controls and monitors the system functions and related electric components in the vacuum toilet system?. a. The Flight Attendant Panel (FAP). b. The waste holding tank. c. The Flush Control Unit (FCU). d. The Cabin Intercommunication Data System (CIDS).

What happens when the waste holding tank is full in the toilet system?. a. The waste is automatically ejected. b. The toilet system shuts down. c. The waste is recycled. d. The waste is diverted to the potable water tank.

The water and waste indications are displayed automatically as soon as the service panel is open. True. False.

On the Flight Attendant Panel (FAP), the filling quantity cannot be selected as an option. True. False.

There is only one control handle on the water service panel. True. False.

On the A320, the overflow valve opens mechanically when the fill/drain control handle is set to the drain position. True. False.

When does the "Overflow Valve Light" come on, and what does it indicate when the valve is in the open position?. A) The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on during draining, indicating that the valve is closed. B) The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on during filling, indicating that the valve is open. C) The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on when the air compressor is activated. D) The "Overflow Valve Light" comes on when the tank is empty.

The Fill/Drain control handle is initially positioned to "drain" when filling the water tank. True. False.

The "Green Tank Full Light" comes on when the tank is empty. True. False.

What happens when the toilet service panel door is open on the ground. A) All toilet operations are stopped through DEU B. B) Flush signals are inhibited. C) The vacuum generator starts automatically. D) The waste holding tank is drained.

9 What is the primary purpose of the drain control handle located at the service panel?. A) Initiating the vacuum generator. B) Controlling cabin pressurization. C) Initiating waste holding tank draining. D) Activating the DEU B.

The Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS) includes two sub systems: a) The Fuel Tank Ventilation System (FTVS). b) The Air Conditioning System (ACS). c) The Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS). d) The Airplane Mode Selector (AMS).

The CSAS gets hot air from the Engine bleed air system and decreases its temperature to a level compatible with the IGGS sub-system. a) The CSAS Inert Gas Generation System (IGGS). b) The CSAS Conditioned Service Air System (CSAS). c) The CSAS Engine Bleed Air System (EBAS). d) The CSAS Air Conditioning System (ACS).

Engine 1 is the primary bleed source and Eng 2, through the X Bleed valve, is the secondary bleed source. a) Engine 1 is the secondary bleed source. b) Engine 2 is the primary bleed source. c) Engine 2 is the secondary bleed source. d) Engine 1 is the primary bleed source.

The bypass valve is installed in the heat exchanger bypass duct and is controlled by the CSAS. a) The bypass valve adds cold air downstream of the heat exchanger. b) The bypass valve adds hot air downstream of the heat exchanger. c) The bypass valve controls the ozone converter. d) The bypass valve is not used in the CSAS.

4 If there is over-pressure or over-temperature, the CSAS isolation valve closes to stop the system. a) The CSAS isolation valve opens to release pressure. b) The CSAS isolation valve remains unaffected by temperature changes. c) The CSAS isolation valve closes in normal operation. d) The CSAS isolation valve has no impact on pressure.

In normal operation, the CSAS isolation valve is open to let the air go through the ozone converter. a) The CSAS isolation valve remains closed. b) The CSAS isolation valve opens after the ozone converter. c) The CSAS isolation valve opens after the heat exchanger. d) The CSAS isolation valve is not used in normal operation.

If a failure of the CSAS system occurs, the status message "INERT FAULT" will come into view only in flight phase 1 and 10, for maintenance. a) The status message appears in all flight phases. b) The status message appears only in flight phase 2. c) The status message appears only in flight phase 1 and 10. d) The status message never appears.

The MEL tells that the A/C can be dispatched with the system unserviceable for 10 days with no maintenance procedure. a) The MEL allows dispatch with unlimited unserviceable days. b) The MEL requires maintenance immediately. c) The MEL allows a 10-day dispatch without maintenance. d) The MEL does not mention dispatch conditions.

n normal operation, the bleed air is filtered by the. CSAS and D-ULPA filter. HPGC door and ASM. ICU and DFSOV. ASM and HPGC door.

Downstream of the D-ULPA filter, air parameters are sent to. DFSOV and ASM. ICU and ASM. Oxygen sensor and ASM. HPGC door and DFSOV.

In abnormal operation, if there is overpressure or overtemperature, the ICU de-energizes the. GGS Isolation Gate Valve solenoid and the DFSOV solenoid. HPGC door and ASM. DFSOV solenoid and the oxygen sensor. Oxygen sensor and the ASM.

What is the primary function of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU)?. Electrical power generation. Engine thrust. Fuel storage. Wing anti-ice.

Besides electrical power, what else does the APU provide?. Engine cooling. Air conditioning in-flight, bleed air for various functions. Navigation assistance. Oxygen supply.

When does the air intake flap open and close?. Opens when APU is ON, closes when OFF. Opens during landing, closes during takeoff. Opens during takeoff, closes during landing. Opens when the main engines are running.

What is the purpose of the air intake flap?. Engine cooling. Reducing noise. Pneumatic supply, combustion air supply. Preventing fires.

Where is the APU installed on the aircraft?. In the cockpit. In the wing. In the fuselage tail cone. In the landing gear.

How is vibration transmission reduced between the APU and the aircraft structure?. Through tie rods. Through isolators. Through exhaust muffler. Through air intake. Through isolators, tie rods.

How is the APU attached to the structure brackets in the APU compartment ceiling?. Through tie rods. Through bolts. Through welding. Through adhesive.

What is the purpose of the vibration isolators in the APU mounting system?. To increase vibration. To reduce noise, prevent transmission of vibrations. To transfer vibrations to the aircraft structure. To connect to the APU three point mounting system.

What is the primary purpose of the drain system in the APU compartment?. To collect fluids for reuse. To prevent fluid accumulation. To supply water for aircraft cleaning. To collect APU exhaust gases.

How are fluids collected and removed from the APU compartment?. Through a drain mast when the aircraft is above 200 kt. Through an APU exhaust pipe. Through an APU cooling system. Through an APU fuel line.

The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is a constant-speed ________ engine. electric. jet. gas turbine. propeller.

he APU provides electrical power for the aircraft systems, bleed air for various functions, and bleed air cutoff above the specified ________ limit. altitude. temperature. manufacturer. speed.

The air intake flap opens when the APU MASTER SWITCH is set to ON and closes when the MASTER SWITCH is set to OFF and the APU ________. When open, it supplies air to the APU inlet for combustion and pneumatic supply. starts. stalls. accelerates. stops.

In case of failure, the air intake flap can be opened or closed manually by a manual ________ device. override. control. lever. switch.

The APU is installed in a fireproof compartment located in the fuselage ________ cone. wing. tail. nose. cockpit.

The Structure Repair Manual is a customized document exclusive to specific airlines. True. False.

The introduction chapter of the SRM provides airplane information such as Weight Variant and Airplane Allocation List. True. False.

8 The weight variant given in the Airplane allocation list always represents the current status of the aircraft. True. False.

For permanent repairs with inspection program, inspections are not quoted along with the repair. True. False.

Each subject within the SRM uses a four-element numbering system. True. False.

What is the first document to use to assess damage on the aircraft structure?. Aircraft Operation Manual. Pilot's Handbook. Structure Repair Manual. Maintenance Manual.

Where is general information or information applicable to more than one chapter included in the SRM?. Chapter 50. Chapter 51. Chapter 52. Chapter 53.

3 In the "MOD/Definition Comparison" service, what does the "Aircraft status" criterion allow you to filter by?. The family of the aircraft. The type of aircraft. The status of the aircraft (e.g. delivered or to be delivered). The owner ICAO code of the aircraft.

What is the primary purpose of the Structure Repair Manual (SRM)?. To provide a list of all Airbus aircraft models. To provide guidelines on how to repair aircraft. To provide a history of Airbus. To provide a list of all aircraft manufacturers.

How is the SRM organized?. By aircraft model. By type of damage. By ATA specification. By date of publication.

What is the significance of 'Allowable Damage'?. It indicates damage that requires immediate repair. It indicates damage that can be ignored. It indicates damage that can be temporarily tolerated without immediate repair. It indicates damage that has been repaired previously.

What does a 'gouge' refer to?. A line of damage. A damage area resulting in a cross sectional change. A mark caused by a sharp object. A series of scratches.

How can the overwing emergency exits on the A318, A319, and A320 be opened for evacuation?. Only from inside. Only from outside. Both from inside or outside. They cannot be opened for evacuation.

How are the cargo compartment doors of the Airbus A320 Family operated?. Electrically using the yellow system. Manually with a locking handle. Hydraulically using the blue system. Automatically via the cockpit controls.

What is the function of the bulk cargo door on the A320 and A321 aircraft?. Provides access to the avionics compartment. Gives access to the bulk cargo compartment. Opens into the passenger cabin. Acts as an emergency exit.

How are the avionics compartment access doors on the lower fuselage operated. Manually. Electrically. Automatically. Using a hand pump.

What is the purpose of the Cockpit Door Locking System (CDLS) in the Airbus A320 Family?. Control cabin temperature. Prevent unauthorized cockpit access. Manage the escape slide. Activate the emergency lighting.

How is the cockpit door typically locked when the aircraft is powered?. Manually with a key. Automatically by CDLS. Electronically with a keypad. Physically by flight crew.

What does the cockpit door escape hatch feature, and how is it kept in position?. Contains emergency supplies. Has a locking handle. Includes a keypad for access authorization. Secured with two pip-pins.

What components are part of the Cockpit Door Locking System (CDLS) in the Airbus A320 Family?. Cockpit door panel on the pedestal with a toggle switch. Control cabin temperature. Overhead control unit in cockpit with integrated maintenance annunciators. Electrical release strikes.