OTORRINO REPASO FINAL seminars

SEMINAR 2 — EMERGENCIES IN ENT Q1. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 21] Bleeding from the nose most frequently originates from which location? A. Posterior part of the nasal septum B. Anterior part of the nasal septum C. Lateral wall of the nose D. Roof of the nasal cavity.

Q2. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 21] Which artery supplies the superior part of the nasal cavity? A. Labial artery B. Sphenopalatine artery C. Anterior ethmoidal artery D. External carotid artery.

Q3. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 22] In bleeding from the posterolateral part of the nose, what is the most common arterial source? A. Posterior ethmoidal artery B. Internal carotid artery C. Sphenopalatine artery D. Labial artery.

Q4. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 22] Which of the following is an indication for posterior nasal packing? A. Mild bleeding from Kiesselbach's area B. Haemorrhage after tonsillectomy C. Severe bleeding from the sphenopalatine artery into the nasal cavity D. Blow-out fracture.

Q5. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 21] A mother brings her 13-year-old son because of unilateral epistaxis. Which diagnosis must be excluded? A. Hypertension B. Adenocarcinoma C. Osteoma D. Juvenile angiofibroma.

Q6. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 33] Which is the most frequent cause of epistaxis among the following options? A. Atherosclerosis associated with hypertension B. Von Willebrand disease C. Schönlein–Henoch purpura D. Neoplasm of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.

Q7. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 36] Which conditions may cause stridor? I. Laryngomalacia II. Subglottic haemangioma III. Bilateral vocal-fold paresis IV. Superior laryngeal nerve palsy V. Malignant laryngeal tumour A. I and III B. I, II and III C. All except IV D. All of the above.

S2 Q8. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 36] Which statement about coniotomy is correct? A. It is performed only in hospital B. It is used interchangeably with intubation during certain neck operations C. It is a form of laryngotomy D. It is performed in tracheal rupture.

S2 Q9. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 35] Which statement about tracheotomy is FALSE? A. It is performed only in hospital B. It is used as an emergency procedure during obstruction in the lower respiratory tract C. The trachea is commonly opened between the second and third tracheal rings D. A vertical midline skin incision is commonly performed.

S2 Q10. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 37] Which is the most popular type of tracheotomy ? A. Superior tracheotomy B. Medial tracheotomy C. Inferior tracheotomy D. All types are performed interchangeably.

Q11. [ORIGINAL — PDF pp. 34–35] Which of the following are complications of cricothyrotomy? I. Hoarseness II. Subcutaneous emphysema III. Blood aspiration IV. Oesophageal laceration V. Damage to laryngeal cartilages A. Only V B. III and V C. All of the above D. All except I.

Q13. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 39] Severe pain between the shoulder blades and behind the sternum after oesophagoscopy indicates: A. Early mediastinitis B. Myocardial infarction C. Pneumonia D. Gastritis.

Q14. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 27] Which is NOT a standard procedure after removing a foreign body from the oesophagus according to the lecture? A. Radiograph, particularly after extraction of sharp objects B. Semiliquid diet for several days C. Indirect mirror examination D. Routine CT of the thorax.

Q15. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 38] Which is NOT a typical direct complication of oesophagoscopy? A. Oesophageal perforation B. Dental injury C. Pneumonia D. Bleeding from the oesophageal mucosa.

Q16. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 38] Foreign bodies in otolaryngology may cause which symptoms? A. Stridor B. Dysphagia C. Dyspnoea D. All of the above.

S2 Q17. [REVIEW — PDF p. 38] Which symptom is LEAST characteristic of foreign-body aspiration? A. Coughing B. Dysphagia C. Severe pain between the shoulder blades D. Whistling sounds and stridor.

SEMINAR 3 — COMPLICATIONS OF ACUTE TONSILLITIS Q18. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 14] Which form of acute inflammation of the pharyngeal lymphatic tissue is considered the most dangerous because of local and systemic complications? A. Tonsillitis caused by group A β-haemolytic streptococci B. Tonsillitis caused by herpes viruses or Coxsackievirus A C. Tonsillitis caused by specific pathogens such as mycobacteria D. Tonsillitis caused by anaerobes.

Q19. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 15] What is the most frequent local complication of acute tonsillitis? A. Peritonsillar abscess B. Parapharyngeal space phlegmon C. Floor-of-mouth phlegmon D. Retropharyngeal abscess.

S3 Q20. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 40] Where does pus accumulate in a peritonsillar abscess? A. Inside the palatine tonsil B. Between the two palatine tonsils C. Between the tonsillar capsule and the pharyngeal wall D. Anterior to the tonsil, outside the peritonsillar space.

Q21. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 30] Which of the following may cause neck phlegmon? A. Rupture of the piriform recess mucosa caused by a foreign body B. Exacerbation of chronic tonsillitis C. Periapical abscess of a mandibular molar tooth D. All of the above.

Q22. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 16] Which are systemic complications of tonsillitis? A. Septicaemia and septicopyaemia B. Endocarditis, myocarditis, arthritis, neuritis and vasculitis C. All of the above D. Rheumatic fever.

S2 Q84. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 47] During anterior rhinoscopy, which structure should be visible and evaluated? A. Inferior nasal concha B. Superior nasal concha C. Ethmoid sinus ostia D. Maxillary sinus cavity.

SEMINAR 3 — COMPLICATIONS OF ACUTE TONSILLITIS 1. Differential diagnosis of tonsillar ulceration Q85. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 43] Ulceration of the palatine tonsil can be a symptom of: A. Agranulocytosis B. Plaut–Vincent angina C. Cancer D. All of the above.

SEMINAR 4 — TUMORS OF THE ORAL CAVITY Q23. [REVIEW — PDF p. 34] Which oral cavity site has the highest risk of malignant tumour development among the following? A. Tongue B. Soft palate C. Buccal mucosa D. Gingiva.

s4 Q24. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 36] Which lesion is NOT associated with malignant transformation? A. Leukoplakia B. Lichen planus C. Erythroplakia D. Geographic tongue.

SEMINAR 5 — OTOGENIC COMPLICATIONS Q86. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 44] What is the most frequent cause of otogenic intracranial and extracranial complications? A. Chronic otitis media with cholesteatoma B. Transverse temporal bone fracture C. Herpes zoster oticus D. Diffuse malignant otitis externa.

Q25. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 2] Which is NOT an intracranial complication of otitis media? A. Meningitis B. Brain abscess C. Lateral sinus thrombosis D. Mastoiditis.

s5 Q26. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 33] What is the most common intracranial otogenic complication? A. Epidural abscess B. Meningitis C. Facial palsy D. Sigmoid sinus thrombosis.

s5 Q27. [RECONSTRUCTED — PDF p. 2] What is the most common complication of acute otitis media? A. Acute mastoiditis B. Cerebellar abscess C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Facial nerve schwannoma.

Q28. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 35] A 28-year-old woman has experienced right-sided otorrhoea for 10 years. Pressing on the external auditory canal causes dizziness. What is the most likely cause? A. Infection affecting the round window B. Acute mastoiditis C. Erosion of the lateral semicircular canal by cholesteatoma D. Epidural abscess caused by cholesteatoma.

SEMINARS 6–7 — LARYNGEAL TUMORS 1. RISK FACTORS AND PREMALIGNANT LESIONS Q29. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 27] Which is NOT a recognized risk factor for laryngeal precancerous lesions? A. Cigarette smoking B. Alcohol abuse C. Frequent antibiotic therapy D. Gastroesophageal reflux disease.

Q30. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 29] Which is a precancerous laryngeal lesion? A. Erythroplakia B. Reinke's oedema C. Laryngomalacia D. Laryngeal neurofibromatosis.

Q31. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 29] Which examination is LEAST useful in diagnosing laryngeal dysplasia? A. Direct laryngoscopy B. CT of the larynx C. Indirect laryngoscopy D. Videolaryngoscopy.

s6-7 Q32. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 37] What is the treatment of choice for laryngeal dysplasia according to the lecture? A. Laryngeal microsurgery B. Primary radiotherapy C. Observation in every case D. Antibiotics and/or methotrexate.

s6-7 Q33. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 17] A 55-year-old male smoker has chronic throat discomfort, painful swallowing and unilateral otalgia. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Supraglottic cancer B. Glottic cancer C. Subglottic cancer D. Both glottic and subglottic cancer.

Q34. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 18] Which statement about laryngeal cancer is TRUE? A. Symptoms depend on tumour location and progression B. Hoarseness occurs in every case C. Otalgia is typical of early T1 glottic cancer D. Cervical lymph-node enlargement is uncommon in advanced disease.

Q35. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 18] Which statement about laryngeal cancer is FALSE? A. It is a common malignancy of the upper respiratory tract B. Early T1/T2 disease generally has a good prognosis C. It is more frequent in females D. Tobacco smoking is a major risk factor.

Q36. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 19] What does elective neck dissection mean? A. Excision of level I lymph nodes and the submandibular gland B. Removal of any metastatic lymph nodes C. Excision of level V lymph nodes only D. Removal of lymph nodes in a clinically N0 neck.

Q37. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 19] In which patient is neck dissection generally NOT indicated? A. T3 subglottic carcinoma B. T4 vocal-fold carcinoma C. T1 vocal-fold carcinoma D. T3 supraglottic carcinoma.

Q38. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 19] What is the treatment of choice for T1 glottic cancer? A. Cordectomy or radiotherapy B. Always cordectomy C. Always radiotherapy D. Total laryngectomy.

SEMINARS 8–9 — TUMORS OF THE PHARYNX Q39. [ORIGINAL — PDF pp. 5–6] Which statement about malignant nasopharyngeal tumours is FALSE? A. Surgical excision is the first-line treatment of choice B. An association with Epstein–Barr virus has been demonstrated C. Radiotherapy or radiochemotherapy is a standard primary treatment D. A cervical neck mass may be an early symptom.

Q40. [RECONSTRUCTED — PDF p. 8] Are cervical lymph-node metastases rare in nasopharyngeal carcinoma? A. Yes, they are exceptionally rare B. No, cervical lymph-node involvement is common C. Only when the tumour involves the vocal folds D. Only following total laryngectomy.

Q41. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 8] What is the most frequent primary site of an oropharyngeal malignant tumour? A. Palatine tonsil B. Floor of the mouth C. Piriform sinus D. Base of the tongue.

SEMINAR 10 — NOSE AND PARANASAL TUMORS Q87. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 46] In the differential diagnosis of a perforation in the cartilaginous nasal septum, which conditions should be considered? A. Syphilis B. Malignant tumour of the nasal septum C. All of the above D. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener's).

Q42. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 22] Which group contains common benign tumours of the nose and paranasal sinuses? A. Osteomas, haemangiomas and papillomas B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Esthesioneuroblastoma D. Lipoma alone.

Q43. [RECONSTRUCTED — PDF p. 22] What is the most common benign tumour of the paranasal sinuses? A. Osteoma B. Squamous cell carcinoma C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma D. Lymphoma.

Q44. [REVIEW — PDF p. 22] Which statement about inverted papilloma is correct? A. None of the other statements is correct B. Surgery with postoperative radiotherapy is the treatment of choice in every case C. It is more common in females D. CT never shows bone destruction.

Q45. [ORIGINAL — PDF pp. 23–24] Which features characterize malignant tumours of the nose and paranasal sinuses? A. Prolonged asymptomatic growth B. Poor prognosis C. All of the above D. Relatively uncommon cervical lymph-node metastases.

SEMINAR 11 — COMPLICATIONS OF SINUSITIS Q46. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 12] What is the most common sinogenic complication? A. Preseptal cellulitis B. Orbital abscess C. Cavernous sinus thrombosis D. Meningitis.

Q47. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 13] Which cranial nerve is NOT typically involved in sinogenic cavernous sinus thrombosis? A. Oculomotor nerve (III) B. Trochlear nerve (IV) C. Abducens nerve (VI) D. Facial nerve (VII).

Q48. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 13] Dysfunction of which cranial nerve is particularly suggestive of cavernous sinus thrombophlebitis? A. Vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) B. Olfactory nerve (I) C. Hypoglossal nerve (XII) D. Abducens nerve (VI).

Q49. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 14] Which is NOT a typical sinogenic complication? A. Orbital phlegmon B. Cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhoea C. Frontal osteomyelitis D. Epidural abscess.

SEMINAR 12 — SALIVARY GLAND TUMORS Q50. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 38] In which salivary glands is a tumour proportionally most likely to be malignant? A. Minor salivary glands B. Parotid gland C. Submandibular gland D. Thyroid gland.

Q51. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 39] What is the most common tumour of the parotid gland? A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Fibroma C. Pleomorphic adenoma D. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma.

Q52. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 39] What is the preferred surgical treatment of a parotid pleomorphic adenoma? A. Simple enucleation of the tumour B. Total parotidectomy with neck dissection C. Total parotidectomy and radiotherapy D. Partial parotidectomy with facial nerve preservation.

Q53. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 38] Which finding is LEAST characteristic of a malignant parotid tumour? A. Facial nerve palsy B. Slow growth C. Enlarged cervical lymph nodes D. Painful, fixed tumour.

SEMINAR 13 — CERVICAL LYMPH NODES AND CUP Q88. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 41] Diagnostics of CUP syndrome at the beginning include: A. Tonsillectomy and CT of the head and neck B. PET examination C. Endoscopic examination, biopsies and tonsillectomy D. Whole-body CT and immunohistochemical markers.

Q89. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 43] Which statement about a lateral neck cyst is TRUE? A. Its most frequent location is the lower lateral neck B. Its diagnosis requires scintigraphy C. It derives from remnants of the branchial arches D. It derives from the parotid gland.

SEMINAR 13 — CERVICAL LYMPH NODES AND CUP 1. NECK DISSECTION Q54. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 34] When is radical neck dissection (Crile operation) performed? A. In extensive cervical lymph-node metastases B. In every patient with any neck metastasis C. In every clinically N0 neck D. It is no longer performed.

Q55. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 37] What is CUP syndrome? A. Laryngeal cancer without neck metastases B. Inability to perform needle biopsy of a known tongue tumour C. Cervical metastatic malignancy with an unknown primary tumour D. Cervical metastasis with a primary tumour identified during hypopharyngeal endoscopy.

Q56. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 30] Which is the most frequent congenital neck mass? A. Thyroglossal duct cyst B. Thymic anomaly C. Plunging ranula D. Ectopic thyroid tissue.

Q57. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 37] Which bone is partially removed during the Sistrunk procedure? A. Hyoid bone B. Mandible C. Nasal bone D. None of the above.

SEMINARS 14–15 — PEDIATRIC OTOLARYNGOLOGY Q58. [ORIGINAL — PDF pp. 36–37] What is the most common congenital malformation of the larynx? A. Laryngeal web B. Laryngomalacia C. Supraglottic stenosis D. Laryngeal cyst.

Q59. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 20] Which symptoms may be associated with pharyngeal tonsil hypertrophy? A. Conductive hearing loss B. Difficulty breathing through the nose C. All of the above D. Recurrent ethmoiditis.

Q90. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 50] The treatment of laryngomalacia consists of: A. No treatment is required in the usual uncomplicated course B. Injection of corticosteroids into the laryngeal walls C. Tracheotomy immediately after diagnosis D. Surgical excision of the epiglottic cartilage.

Seminar 4 — Tumors of the Oral Cavity Q108. [RECONSTRUCTED — PDF pp. 32 and 128] What is the most common malignant tumour of the oral cavity? A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma B. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma C. Lymphoma D. Squamous cell carcinoma.

Seminar 10 — Nose and Paranasal Tumors Q109. [RECONSTRUCTED — PDF p. 22] What is the most common malignant tumour of the nose and paranasal sinuses? A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Inverted papilloma C. Osteoma D. Haemangioma.

Seminar 13 — Cervical Lymph Nodes and CUP Q110. [RECONSTRUCTED — PDF pp. 33–34] Which neck dissection is the most extensive classical procedure? A. Selective neck dissection B. Radical neck dissection C. Sentinel lymph-node biopsy D. Excision of a single enlarged cervical node.

Seminar 13 — Cervical Lymph Nodes Q119. [RECONSTRUCTED — PDF pp. 30 and 109] Where is a typical second branchial cleft cyst located? A. In the midline immediately below the hyoid bone B. Along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle C. Within the thyroid isthmus D. Inside the external auditory canal.

Seminar 8–9 — Tumors of the Pharynx Q120. [RECONSTRUCTED — PDF pp. 8 and 123] What is a common early manifestation of nasopharyngeal carcinoma? A. Cervical lymph-node enlargement B. Sudden bilateral facial paralysis C. Isolated conductive hearing loss caused by otosclerosis D. Acute vocal-fold rupture.

Seminar 13 — Cervical Lymph Nodes and Neck Tumors Q121. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 34] A 45-year-old woman presents with an asymptomatic, pulsatile lateral neck mass, associated with dysphagia and hoarseness. What is the most likely diagnosis? A. Laryngocele B. Zenker diverticulum C. Carotid body tumour D. Branchial cleft cyst.

Q122. [ORIGINAL — PDF p. 34] In which malignancy are cervical lymph-node metastases relatively uncommon? A. Ear cancer B. Oral cavity cancer C. Supraglottic cancer D. Nasopharyngeal cancer.